SEC Form N-2ASR filed by Eaton Vance Enhance Equity Income Fund Eaton Vance Enhanced Eq
THE SECURITIES ACT of 1933 |
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PRE-EFFECTIVE AMENDMENT NO. |
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POST-EFFECTIVE AMENDMENT NO. |
THE INVESTMENT COMPANY ACT OF 1940 |
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AMENDMENT NO. |
Check box if the only securities being registered on this Form are being offered pursuant to dividend or interest reinvestment plans. |
Check box if any securities being registered on this Form will be offered on a delayed or continuous basis in reliance on Rule 415 under the Securities Act of 1933 (“Securities Act”), other than securities offered in connection with a dividend reinvestment plan. |
Check box if this Form is a registration statement pursuant to General Instruction A.2 or a post-effective amendment thereto. |
Check box if this Form is a registration statement pursuant to General Instruction B or a post-effective amendment thereto that will become effective upon filing with the Commission pursuant to Rule 462(e) under the Securities Act. |
Check box if this Form is a post-effective amendment to a registration statement filed pursuant to General Instruction B to register additional securities or additional classes of securities pursuant to Rule 413(b) under the Securities Act. |
when declared effective pursuant to section 8(c) |
This post-effective amendment designates a new effective date for a previously filed registration statement. |
This form is filed to register additional securities for an offering pursuant to Rule 462(b) under the Securities Act and the Securities Act registration statement number of the earlier effective registration statement for the same offering is |
This Form is a post-effective amendment filed pursuant to Rule 462(c) under the Securities Act, and the Securities Act registration statement number of the earlier effective registration statement for the same offering is |
This Form is a post-effective amendment filed pursuant to Rule 462(d) under the Securities Act, and the Securities Act registration statement number of the earlier effective registration statement for the same offering is |
Registered closed-end fund (closed-end company that is registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (“Investment Company Act”)). |
Business development company (closed-end company that intends or has elected to be regulated as a business development company under the Investment Company Act). |
Interval fund (Registered Closed-End Fund or a Business Development Company that makes periodic repurchase offers under Rule 23c-3 under the Investment Company Act). |
A.2 Qualified (qualified to register securities pursuant to General Instruction A.2 of this Form). |
Well-Known Seasoned Issuer (as defined by Rule 405 under the Securities Act). |
Emerging Growth Company (as defined by Rule 12b-2 under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”). |
☐ |
If an Emerging Growth Company, indicate by check mark if the registrant has elected not to use the extended transition period for complying with any new or revised financial accounting standards provided pursuant to Section 7(a)(2)(B) of Securities Act. |
New Registrant (registered or regulated under the Investment Company Act for less than 12 calendar months preceding this filing). |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 2 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
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Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 3 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
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Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 10 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
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Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 12 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 13 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 14 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 15 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Common Shareholder transaction expenses |
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Sales load paid by you ( |
(1) | |||
Offering expenses ( |
(2) | |||
Dividend reinvestment plan fees |
$ | (3) |
Annual expenses |
attributable to Common Shares ( 4) |
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Investment advisory fee |
% (5) | |||
Other expenses |
% | |||
Total annual Fund operating expenses |
% |
(1) |
If Common Shares are sold to or through underwriters, the Prospectus Supplement will set forth any applicable sales load. |
(2) |
(3) |
You will be charged a $5.00 service charge and pay brokerage charges if you direct the plan agent to sell your Common Shares held in a dividend reinvestment account. |
(4) |
Stated as a percentage of average net assets attributable to Common Shares for the year ended September 30, 2024. |
(5) |
1 Year |
3 Years |
5 Years |
10 Years | |||
$ |
$ |
$ |
$ |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 16 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Year Ended September 30 |
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2024 |
2023 |
2022 |
2021 |
2020 |
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Net asset value – Beginning of year |
$ | 15.82 | $ | 14.36 | $ | 18.18 | $ | 15.68 | $ | 15.06 | ||||||||||
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Income (Loss) From Operations |
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Net investment income (loss) (1) |
$ | (0.02 | ) | $ | 0.05 | $ | 0.07 | $ | 0.07 | $ | 0.13 | |||||||||
Net realized and unrealized gain (loss) |
5.92 | 2.72 | (2.59 | ) | 3.55 | 1.57 | ||||||||||||||
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Total income (loss) from operations |
$ |
5.90 |
$ |
2.77 |
$ |
(2.52 |
) |
$ |
3.62 |
$ |
1.70 |
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Less Distributions |
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From net investment income |
$ | (0.01 | ) | $ | (0.05 | ) | $ | (0.07 | ) | $ | (0.08 | ) | $ | (0.13 | ) | |||||
From net realized gain |
(1.37 | ) | (1.26 | ) | (1.24 | ) | (1.01 | ) | — | |||||||||||
Tax return of capital |
(0.08 | ) | — | — | (0.03 | ) | (0.95 | ) | ||||||||||||
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Total distributions |
$ |
(1.46 |
) |
$ |
(1.31 |
) |
$ |
(1.31 |
) |
$ |
(1.12 |
) |
$ |
(1.08 |
) | |||||
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Premium from common shares sold through shelf offering (1) |
$ |
— |
$ |
0.00 |
(2) |
$ |
0.01 |
$ |
0.00 |
(2) |
$ |
0.00 |
(2) | |||||||
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Net asset value – End of year |
$ |
20.26 |
$ |
15.82 |
$ |
14.36 |
$ |
18.18 |
$ |
15.68 |
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Market value – End of year |
$ |
20.23 |
$ |
15.85 |
$ |
14.10 |
$ |
17.90 |
$ |
14.64 |
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Total Investment Return on Net Asset Value (3) |
38.84 |
% |
19.71 |
% |
(14.72 |
)% |
23.70 |
% |
12.08 |
% | ||||||||||
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Total Investment Return on Market Value (3) |
38.38 |
% |
22.15 |
% |
(14.95 |
)% |
30.45 |
% |
4.09 |
% | ||||||||||
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Ratios/Supplemental Data |
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Net assets, end of year (000’s omitted) |
$ | 818,060 | $ | 638,726 | $ | 576,104 | $ | 715,498 | $ | 616,526 | ||||||||||
Ratios (as a percentage of average daily net assets): (4) |
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Total expenses |
1.10 | % | 1.11 | % | 1.10 | % | 1.10 | % | 1.11 | % | ||||||||||
Net expenses |
1.10 | % (5) |
1.11 | % (5) |
1.10 | % (5) |
1.10 | % | 1.11 | % | ||||||||||
Net investment income (loss) |
(0.10 | )% | 0.35 | % | 0.41 | % | 0.42 | % | 0.84 | % | ||||||||||
Portfolio Turnover |
42 | % | 63 | % | 50 | % | 35 | % | 41 | % | ||||||||||
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Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 17 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Year Ended September 30, |
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2019 |
2018 |
2017 |
2016 |
2015 |
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Net asset value – Beginning of year |
$ | 15.88 | $ | 14.47 | $ | 13.57 | $ | 13.40 | $ | 14.60 | ||||||||||
Income (Loss) From Operations |
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Net investment income (1) |
$ | 0.10 | $ | 0.09 | $ | 0.11 | $ | 0.14 | $ | 0.23 | ||||||||||
Net realized and unrealized gain (loss) |
0.15 | 2.36 | 1.82 | 1.07 | (0.40 | ) | ||||||||||||||
Total income (loss) from operations |
$ |
0.245 |
$ |
2.45 |
$ |
1.94 |
$ |
1.21 |
$ |
(0.16 |
) | |||||||||
Less Distributions |
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From net investment income |
$ | (0.10 | ) | $ | (0.09 | ) | $ | (0.10 | ) | $ | (0.11 | ) | $ | (0.24 | ) | |||||
From net realized gain |
(0.97 | ) | (0.85 | ) | (0.12 | ) | — | (0.62 | ) | |||||||||||
Tax return of capital |
— | (0.100 | ) | (0.811 | ) | (0.926 | ) | (0.18 | ) | |||||||||||
Total distributions |
$ |
(1.07 |
) |
$ |
(1.04 |
) |
$ |
(1.04 |
) |
$ |
(1.04 |
) |
$ |
(1.04 |
) | |||||
Anti-dilutive effect of share repurchase program (1) |
$ |
0.00 |
(2) |
$ |
— |
$ |
— |
$ |
— |
$ |
— |
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Net asset value – End of year |
$ |
15.06 |
$ |
15.88 |
$ |
14.47 |
$ |
13.57 |
$ |
13.40 |
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Market value – End of year |
$ |
15.14 |
$ |
16.01 |
$ |
14.02 |
$ |
12.65 |
$ |
11.89 |
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Total Investment Return on Net Asset Value (3) |
2.11 |
% |
17.69 |
% |
15.36 |
% |
9.74 |
% |
(0.86 |
)% | ||||||||||
Total Investment Return on Market Value (3) |
1.81 |
% |
22.46 |
% |
19.89 |
% |
15.29 |
% |
(6.39 |
)% | ||||||||||
Ratios/Supplemental Data |
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Net assets, end of year (000’s omitted) |
$ | 591,013 | $ | 622,888 | $ | 566,770 | $ | 531,745 | $ | 525,002 | ||||||||||
Ratios (as a percentage of average daily net assets): |
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Expenses (6) |
1.11 | % | 1.11 | % | 1.11 | % | 1.12 | % | 1.11 | % | ||||||||||
Net investment income |
0.69 | % | 0.60 | % | 0.81 | % | 1.00 | % | 1.59 | % | ||||||||||
Portfolio Turnover |
55 | % | 46 | % | 76 | % | 82 | % | 72 | % | ||||||||||
(1) |
Computed using average shares outstanding. |
(2) |
Amount is less than $0.005. |
(3) |
Returns are historical and are calculated by determining the percentage change in net asset value or market value with all distributions reinvested. Distributions are assumed to be reinvested at prices obtained under the Fund’s dividend reinvestment plan. |
(4) |
Total expenses do not reflect amounts reimbursed and/or waived by the adviser and certain of its affiliates, if applicable. Net expenses are net of all reductions and represent the net expenses paid by the Fund. |
(5) |
Includes a reduction by the investment adviser of a portion of its adviser fee due to the Fund’s investment in the Morgan Stanley Institutional Liquidity Funds (equal to less than 0.005% of average daily net assets for the years ended September 30, 2024, 2023 and 2022). |
(6) |
Excludes the effect of custody fee credits, if any, of less than 0.005%. Effective September 1, 2015, custody fee credits, which were earned on cash deposit balances, were discontinued by the custodian. |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 18 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Market Price ($) | NAV per Share on Date of Market Price ($) |
NAV Premium/ (Discount) on Date of Market Price (%) |
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Fiscal Quarter Ended |
High | Low | High | Low | High | Low | ||||||||||||||||||
12/31/2024 |
$ |
$ |
$ |
$ |
% | ( |
)% | |||||||||||||||||
9/30/2024 |
$ |
$ |
$ |
$ |
( |
)% | ( |
)% | ||||||||||||||||
6/30/2024 |
$ |
$ |
$ |
$ |
( |
)% | ( |
)% | ||||||||||||||||
3/31/2024 |
$ |
$ |
$ |
$ |
% | ( |
)% | |||||||||||||||||
12/31/2023 |
$ |
$ |
$ |
$ |
( |
)% | ( |
)% | ||||||||||||||||
9/30/2023 |
$ |
$ |
$ |
$ |
% | % | ||||||||||||||||||
6/30/2023 |
$ |
$ |
$ |
$ |
( |
)% | ( |
)% | ||||||||||||||||
3/31/2023 |
$ |
$ |
$ |
$ |
% | ( |
)% | |||||||||||||||||
12/31/2022 |
$ |
$ |
$ |
$ |
% | ( |
)% |
Title of Class |
Amount Authorized |
Amount Held by the Fund for its Account |
Amount Outstanding | |||
Unlimited |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 19 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 20 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 21 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 22 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 23 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 24 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 25 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 26 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 27 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 28 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 29 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 30 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 31 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 32 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 33 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 34 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 35 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 36 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 37 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 38 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 39 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 40 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 41 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 42 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 43 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 44 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 45 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 46 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
• | The Fund’s SAI, dated January 17, 2025, filed with this Prospectus; |
• | our annual report on Form N-CSR for the fiscal year ended September 30, 2024 filed with the SEC on November 26, 2024; and |
• | the description of the Fund’s common shares contained in its Registration Statement on Form 8-A filed with the SEC on September 21, 2004, including any amendment or report filed for the purpose of updating such description prior to the termination of the offering registered hereby. |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 47 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
FACTS |
WHAT DOES EATON VANCE DO WITH YOUR PERSONAL INFORMATION | |||
Why? |
Financial companies choose how they share your personal information. Federal law gives consumers the right to limit some but not all sharing. Federal law also requires us to tell you how we collect, share, and protect your personal information. Please read this notice carefully to understand what we do. | |||
What? |
The types of personal information we collect and share depend on the product or service you have with us. This information can include: • Social Security number and income • investment experience and risk tolerance • checking account information and wire transfer instructions | |||
How? |
All financial companies need to share customers’ personal information to run their everyday business. In the section below, we list the reasons financial companies can share their customers’ personal information; the reasons Eaton Vance chooses to share; and whether you can limit this sharing. |
Reasons we can share your personal information |
Does Eaton Vance share? |
Can you limit this sharing? | ||
For our everyday business purposes— |
Yes | No | ||
For our marketing purposes— |
Yes | No | ||
For joint marketing with other financial companies |
No | We don’t share | ||
For our affiliates’ everyday business purposes— |
Yes | No* | ||
For our affiliates’ everyday business purposes— |
Yes | Yes* | ||
For our affiliates to market to you |
Yes | Yes* | ||
For nonaffiliates to market to you |
No | We don’t share |
To limit our sharing |
Call toll-free 1-800-262-1122 Please note: If you are a new no longer | |
Questions? |
Call toll-free 1-800-262-1122 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 48 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Who we are |
||
Who is providing this notice? |
Eaton Vance Management | |
What we do |
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How does Eaton Vance protect my personal information? |
To protect your personal information from unauthorized access and use, we use security measures that comply with federal law. These measures include computer safeguards and secured files and buildings. We have policies governing the proper handling of customer information by personnel and requiring third parties that provide support to adhere to appropriate security standards with respect to such information. | |
How does Eaton Vance collect my personal information? |
We collect your personal information, for example, when you • open an account or make deposits or withdrawals from your account • buy securities from us or make a wire transfer • give us your contact information We also collect your personal information from others, such as credit bureaus, affiliates, or other companies. | |
Why can’t I limit all sharing? |
Federal law gives you the right to limit only • sharing for affiliates’ everyday business purposes—information about your creditworthiness • affiliates from using your information to market to you • sharing for nonaffiliates to market to you State laws and individual companies may give you additional rights to limit sharing. See below for more on your rights under state law. | |
What happens when I limit sharing for an account I hold jointly with someone else? |
Your choices will apply to everyone on your account. |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 49 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Definitions | ||
Affiliates |
Companies related by common ownership or control. They can be financial and nonfinancial companies. • Our affiliates include registered investment advisers such as Eaton Vance Management, Eaton Vance Advisers International Ltd., Boston Management and Research, Calvert Research and Management, Parametric Portfolio Associates LLC, Atlanta Capital Management Company LLC, Morgan Stanley Investment Management Inc., Morgan Stanley Investment Management Co.; registered broker-dealers such as Morgan Stanley Distributors Inc. and Eaton Vance Distributors, Inc. (together, the “Investment Management Affiliates”); and companies with a Morgan Stanley name and financial companies such as Morgan Stanley Smith Barney LLC and Morgan Stanley & Co. (the “Morgan Stanley Affiliates”). | |
Nonaffiliates |
Companies not related by common ownership or control. They can be financial and nonfinancial companies. • Eaton Vance does not share with nonaffiliates so they can market to you. | |
Joint marketing |
A formal agreement between nonaffiliated financial companies that together market financial products or services to you. • Eaton Vance does not jointly market. |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 50 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 51 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
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Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 52 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 53 | Prospectus dated January 17, 2025 |
STATEMENT OF ADDITIONAL
INFORMATION
January 17, 2025
EATON VANCE ENHANCED EQUITY INCOME FUND
One Post Office Square
Boston, MA 02109
1-800-262-1122
Table of Contents
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47 |
THIS STATEMENT OF ADDITIONAL INFORMATION (“SAI”) IS NOT A PROSPECTUS AND IS AUTHORIZED FOR DISTRIBUTION TO PROSPECTIVE INVESTORS ONLY IF PRECEDED OR ACCOMPANIED BY THE PROSPECTUS OF EATON VANCE ENHANCED EQUITY INCOME FUND (THE “FUND”) DATED JANUARY 17, 2025 (THE “PROSPECTUS”), AS SUPPLEMENTED FROM TIME TO TIME, WHICH IS INCORPORATED HEREIN BY REFERENCE. THIS SAI SHOULD BE READ IN CONJUNCTION WITH SUCH PROSPECTUS, A COPY OF WHICH MAY BE OBTAINED WITHOUT CHARGE BY CONTACTING YOUR FINANCIAL INTERMEDIARY OR CALLING THE FUND AT 1-800-262-1122.
Capitalized terms used in this SAI and not otherwise defined have the meanings given them in the Fund’s Prospectus and any related Prospectus Supplements.
ADDITIONAL INVESTMENT INFORMATION AND RESTRICTIONS
Primary investment strategies are described in the Prospectus. The following is a description of the various investment policies that may be engaged in, whether as a primary or secondary strategy, and a summary of certain attendant risks. Eaton Vance may not buy any of the following instruments or use any of the following techniques unless it believes that doing so will help to achieve the Fund’s investment objectives.
Equity Investments. As described in the Prospectus, the Fund invests primarily in common stocks.
Preferred Stocks. The Fund may invest in preferred stocks of both domestic and foreign issuers. Under normal market conditions, the Fund expects, with respect to that portion of its total assets invested in preferred stocks, to invest only in preferred stocks of investment grade quality as determined by S&P, Fitch or Moody’s or, if unrated, determined to be of comparable quality by Eaton Vance. The foregoing credit quality policies apply only at the time a security is purchased, and the Fund is not required to dispose of a security in the event of a downgrade of an assessment of credit quality or the withdrawal of a rating. Preferred stocks involve credit risk, which is the risk that a preferred stock will decline in price, or fail to pay dividends when expected, because the issuer experiences a decline in its financial status. In addition to credit risk, investment in preferred stocks involves certain other risks as more fully described in the Prospectus.
Derivative Instruments. Derivative instruments (which are instruments that derive their value from an underlying reference instrument may be purchased or sold to enhance return (which may be considered speculative), to hedge against fluctuations in securities prices or market conditions, or as a substitute for the purchase or sale of securities or currencies. Depending on the type of derivative instrument and the Fund’s investment strategy, a derivative instrument may be based on a security, instrument, index, currency, commodity, economic indicator or event (referred to as “reference instruments”). These strategies may be executed through the use of derivative contracts in the U.S. or abroad. In the course of pursuing these investment strategies, the Fund may purchase and sell exchange-listed and over-the-counter put and call options on securities, equity and fixed-income indices and other instruments, purchase and sell futures contracts and options thereon, and enter into various transactions such as swaps, caps, floors or collars. In addition, derivatives may also include new techniques, instruments or strategies that are permitted as regulatory changes occur. Transactions in derivative instruments involve a risk of loss or depreciation due to: unanticipated adverse changes in securities prices, interest rates, indices, or the other financial instruments’ prices; the inability to close out a position; default by the counterparty; imperfect correlation between a position and the desired hedge; tax constraints on closing out positions; and portfolio management constraints on securities subject to such transactions. The loss on derivative instruments (other than purchased options) may substantially exceed an investment in these instruments. In addition, the entire premium paid for purchased options may be lost before they can be profitably exercised. Transaction costs are incurred in opening and closing positions. Derivative instruments may sometimes increase or leverage exposure to a particular market risk, thereby increasing price volatility. Over-the-counter (“OTC”) derivative instruments, including equity swaps and forward sales of stocks involve an enhanced risk that the issuer or counterparty will fail to perform its contractual obligations. Some derivative instruments are not readily marketable or may become illiquid under adverse market conditions. In addition, during periods of market volatility, a commodity exchange may suspend or limit trading in an exchange-traded derivative instrument, which may make the contract temporarily illiquid and difficult to price. Commodity exchanges may also establish daily limits on the amount that the price of a futures contract or futures option can vary from the previous day’s settlement price. Once the daily limit is reached, no trades may be made that day at a price beyond the limit. In the past, prices have reached the daily limit on several consecutive days with little or no trading. This may prevent the closing out of positions to limit losses. The ability to terminate OTC derivative instruments may depend on the cooperation of the counterparties to such contracts. For thinly traded derivative instruments, the only source of price quotations may be the selling dealer or counterparty. In addition, certain provisions of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (the “Code”) limit the use of derivative instruments. There can be no assurance that the use of derivative instruments will be advantageous.
Foreign exchange traded futures contracts and options thereon may be used only if the Adviser determines that trading on such foreign exchange does not entail risks, including credit and liquidity risks, that are materially greater than the risks associated with trading on CFTC-regulated exchanges.
The CFTC, certain foreign regulators and many futures exchanges have established (and continue to evaluate and revise) speculative position limits, referred to as “position limits,” on the maximum net long or net short positions which any person or entity, may hold or control in certain futures and options on futures contracts. In addition, U.S. federal position limits apply to swaps that are economically equivalent to futures contracts on certain agricultural, metals and energy commodities. Unless an exemption applies, all positions owned or controlled by the same person or entity, even if in different accounts, must be aggregated for purposes of determining whether the applicable position limits have been exceeded, unless an exemption applies. Thus, even if the Fund does not intend to exceed applicable position limits, it is possible that positions of different clients managed by the Adviser or its affiliates may be aggregated for this purpose. Therefore, trading decisions of the Adviser may have to be modified and positions held by the Fund may have to be liquidated in order to avoid exceeding such limits. Any modifications of trading decisions or
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elimination of open positions, if they occur, may adversely affect the performance of the Fund and the Fund’s ability to pursue its investment strategies. A violation of position limits could also lead to regulatory action materially adverse to the Fund’s investment strategies. The Fund may also be affected by other regimes, including those of the EU and UK, and trading venues that impose position limits on commodity derivatives contracts.
The regulation of derivatives has undergone substantial change in recent years. In particular, the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (the “Dodd-Frank Act”) and related regulations require most derivatives to be margined and/or cleared and traded on an exchange, expand entity registration requirements, impose business conduct requirements on counterparties, and impose other regulatory requirements that impact derivatives markets. The implementation of these requirements or additional future regulation of the derivatives markets may make the use of derivatives more costly, may limit the availability or reduce the liquidity of derivatives, and may impose limits or restrictions on the counterparties with which the Fund engages in derivative transactions. The Adviser cannot fully predict the effects of any governmental regulation, and there can be no assurance that any government regulation will not adversely affect the Fund’s performance or ability to achieve its investment objectives.
Regulatory bodies outside the U.S. have also implemented and continue to implement rules and regulations similar to the Dodd-Frank Act and such actions could similarly increase the costs of participating in, or otherwise adversely impact the liquidity of, participating in the derivatives markets. U.S. and global regulators have issued final rules that require the exchange of variation and in some cases, initial margin in respect of uncleared derivatives. In addition, regulations adopted by global prudential regulators require certain regulated entities and certain of their affiliates and subsidiaries (including swap dealers) to include in their derivatives contracts, terms that delay or restrict the rights of counterparties (such as the Fund) to terminate such contracts, foreclose upon collateral, exercise other default rights or restrict transfers of credit support in the event that the regulated entity and/or its affiliates are subject to certain types of resolution or insolvency proceedings. Similar regulations and laws have been adopted in non-U.S. jurisdictions that may apply to the Fund’s counterparties located in those jurisdictions. It is possible that these requirements, as well as potential additional related government regulation, could adversely affect the Fund’s ability to terminate existing derivatives contracts, exercise default rights or satisfy obligations owed to it with collateral received under such contracts.
The SEC adopted Rule 18f-4 under the Investment Company Act of 1940, as amended (the “1940 Act”), which applies to the Fund’s use of derivative investments and certain financing transactions. Among other things, Rule 18f-4 requires certain funds that invest in derivative instruments beyond a specified limited amount (generally greater than 10% of the Fund’s net assets) to apply a value-at-risk based limit to their use of certain derivative instruments and financing transactions and to adopt and implement a derivatives risk management program. To the extent the Fund uses derivative instruments (excluding certain currency and interest rate hedging transactions) in a limited amount (generally up to 10% of the Fund’s net assets), it will not be subject to the full requirements of Rule 18f-4. In addition, to the extent that the Fund enters into reverse repurchase agreements or similar financing transactions, the Fund may elect to either treat all of its reverse repurchase agreements or similar financing transactions as derivatives transactions for purposes of Rule 18f-4 or comply (with respect to reverse repurchase agreements or similar financing transactions) with the asset coverage requirements under Section 18 of the 1940 Act. The implementation of these requirements or additional future regulation of the derivatives markets may make the use of derivatives more costly, may limit the availability or reduce the liquidity of derivatives, and may impose limits or restrictions on the counterparties with which the Fund engages in derivative transactions. The Adviser cannot fully predict the effects of any governmental regulation, and there can be no assurance that any government regulation will not adversely affect the Fund’s performance or ability to achieve its investment objectives.
Investments in ETFs. The Fund can invest in shares of exchange-traded funds (“ETFs”). ETFs are pooled investment vehicles that trade their shares on stock exchanges at market prices (rather than net asset value) and are only redeemable from the ETF itself in large increments or in exchange for baskets of securities. As an exchange traded security, an ETF’s shares are priced continuously and trade throughout the day. ETFs may track a securities index, a particular market sector, a particular segment of a securities index or market sector (“Passive ETFs”), or they may be actively managed (“Active ETFs”). An investment in an ETF generally involves the same primary risks as an investment in a fund that is not exchange-traded that has the same investment objectives, strategies and policies of the ETF, such as liquidity risk, sector risk and foreign and emerging market risk, as well as risks associated with equity securities, fixed income securities, real estate investments and commodities, as applicable. In addition, a Passive ETF may fail to accurately track the market segment or index that underlies its investment objective or may fail to fully replicate its underlying index, in which case the Passive ETF’s investment strategy may not produce the intended results. The way in which shares of ETFs are traded, purchased and redeemed involves certain risks. An ETF may trade at a price that is lower than its net asset value. Secondary market trading of an ETF may result in frequent price fluctuations, which in turn may result in a loss to a Fund. Additionally, natural or environmental disasters, widespread disease or other public health issues, war, acts of terrorism or other events could result in increased premiums or discounts to an ETF’s net asset value. There is no guarantee that an active market for the ETF’s shares will develop or be maintained. An ETF may fail to meet the listing requirements of any applicable exchanges on which it is listed. Further, trading in an ETF may be halted if the trading in one or more of the securities held by an ETF is halted. The existence of extreme market volatility or potential lack of an active trading market for an ETF’s shares could result in such shares trading at a significant premium or discount to their NAV.
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A Fund will indirectly bear its proportionate share of any management fees and other operating expenses of an ETF in which it invests. A Fund may pay brokerage commissions in connection with the purchase and sale of shares of ETFs.
Short Sales. The Fund may sell a security short if it owns at least an equal amount of the security sold short or another security convertible or exchangeable for an equal amount of the security sold short without payment of further compensation (a short sale against-the-box).
Purchasing securities to close out the short position can itself cause the price of the securities to rise further, thereby exacerbating the loss. Short-selling exposes the Fund to unlimited risk with respect to that security due to the lack of an upper limit on the price to which an instrument can rise. Although the Fund reserves the right to utilize short sales, the Adviser is under no obligation to utilize short sales at all.
The SEC has adopted new rules requiring investment managers to file monthly confidential reports with the SEC regarding equity short sales and related activity. Under the new rules, the SEC will publicly disclose aggregated short position information on a monthly basis. The SEC also adopted a rule that will require reporting and public disclosure of securities loan transaction information (not including party names); this may include, but is not limited to, information about securities loans entered into in connection with short sales. In addition, other non-U.S. jurisdictions (such as the EU and the UK) where a Fund may trade have reporting requirements. Short sales are also subject to certain SEC regulations and certain EU and UK regulations (under which there are restrictions on net short sales in certain securities). In response to market events, the SEC and regulatory authorities in other jurisdictions may adopt (and in certain cases, have adopted) bans or other restrictions on short sales of certain securities or on derivatives and other hedging instruments used to achieve a similar economic effect. Such bans or other restrictions may make limit the Fund’s ability to execute certain investment strategies.
Real Estate Investments. Companies primarily engaged in the real estate industry and other real estate-related investments may include publicly traded real estate investment trusts (“REITs”) or real estate operating companies that either own properties or make construction or mortgage loans, real estate developers, companies with substantial real estate holdings and other companies whose products and services are related to the real estate industry, such as lodging operators, brokers, property management companies, building supply manufacturers, mortgage lenders, or mortgage servicing companies. REITs tend to be small to medium-sized companies, and may include equity REITs and mortgage REITs. The value of a REIT can depend on the structure of and cash flow generated by the REIT. REITs are pooled investment vehicles that have expenses of their own, so the Fund will indirectly bear its proportionate share of those expenses. The Fund will not own real estate directly.
Real estate investments are subject to special risks including changes in real estate values, property taxes, interest rates, cash flow of underlying real estate assets, occupancy rates, government regulations affecting zoning, land use, and rents, and the management skill and creditworthiness of the issuer. Companies in the real estate industry may also be subject to liabilities under environmental and hazardous waste laws, among others. Changes in underlying real estate values may have an exaggerated effect to the extent that investments concentrate in particular geographic regions or property types.
Equity REITs may be affected by changes in the value of the underlying property owned by the REIT, while mortgage REITs may be affected by the quality of any credit extended. Further, equity and mortgage REITs are dependent upon management skills and generally may not be diversified. Equity and mortgage REITs are also subject to heavy cash flow dependency, defaults by borrowers, and self-liquidations. In addition, equity and mortgage REITs could possibly fail to qualify for favorable tax treatment or to maintain their exemptions from registration under the 1940 Act. The above factors may also adversely affect a borrower’s or a lessee’s ability to meet its obligations to a REIT. In the event of a default by a borrower or lessee, a REIT may experience delays in enforcing its rights as a mortgagee or lessor and may incur substantial costs associated with protecting its investments.
Shares of REITs may trade less frequently and, therefore, are subject to more erratic price movements than securities of larger issuers. REITs are also subject to credit, market, liquidity and interest rate risks.
REITs may issue debt securities to fund their activities. The value of these debt securities may be affected by changes in the value of the underlying property owned by the REIT, the creditworthiness of the REIT, interest rates, and tax and regulatory requirements, among other things.
Securities Lending. As described in the Prospectus, the Fund may lend a portion of its portfolio securities to broker-dealers or other institutional borrowers. Loans will be made only to organizations whose credit quality or claims paying ability is considered by the Adviser to be at least investment grade. All securities loans will be collateralized on a continuous basis by cash or U.S. government securities having a value, marked to market daily, of at least 100% of the market value of the loaned securities. The Fund may receive loan fees in connection with loans that are collateralized by securities or on loans of securities for which there is special demand. The Fund may also seek to earn income on securities loans by reinvesting cash collateral in securities consistent with its investment objectives and policies, seeking to invest at rates that are higher than the “rebate” rate that it normally will pay to the borrower with respect to such cash collateral. Any such reinvestment will be subject to the investment policies, restrictions and risk considerations described in the Prospectus and in this SAI.
Securities loans may result in delays in recovering, or a failure of the borrower to return, the loaned securities. The defaulting borrower ordinarily would be liable to the Fund for any losses resulting from such delays or failures, and the collateral provided in connection with the loan normally would also be available for that purpose. Securities loans normally may be terminated by either the
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Fund or the borrower at any time. Upon termination and the return of the loaned securities, the Fund would be required to return the related cash or securities collateral to the borrower and it may be required to liquidate longer term portfolio securities in order to do so. To the extent that such securities have decreased in value, this may result in the Fund realizing a loss at a time when it would not otherwise do so. The Fund also may incur losses if it is unable to reinvest cash collateral at rates higher than applicable rebate rates paid to borrowers and related administrative costs. These risks are substantially the same as those incurred through investment leverage, and will be subject to the investment policies, restrictions and risk considerations described in the Prospectus and in this SAI.
The Fund will receive amounts equivalent to any interest or other distributions paid on securities while they are on loan, and the Fund will not be entitled to exercise voting or other beneficial rights on loaned securities. The Fund will exercise its right to terminate loans and thereby regain these rights whenever the Adviser considers it to be in the Fund’s interest to do so, taking into account the related loss of reinvestment income and other factors.
The SEC recently adopted a rule that will require reporting and public disclosure of certain securities loan transaction information (not including party names); this may include, but is not limited to, information about securities loans entered into in connection with short sales. While it is currently difficult to predict the full impact of this new rule, the rule could make it more difficult for the Fund to execute certain investment strategies and may have an adverse effect on a Fund’s ability to generate returns.
Illiquid Investments. The Fund is exposed to liquidity risk when trading volume, lack of a market maker or trading partner, large position size, market conditions, or legal restrictions impair its ability to sell particular investments or to sell them at advantageous market prices. Consequently, the Fund may have to accept a lower price to sell an investment or continue to hold it or keep the position open, sell other investments to raise cash or abandon an investment opportunity, any of which could have a negative effect on the Fund’s performance. These effects may be exacerbated during times of financial or political stress.
At times, a portion of the Fund’s assets may be invested in investments as to which the Fund, by itself or together with other accounts managed by the Adviser and its affiliates, holds a major portion or all of such investments. Under adverse market or economic conditions or in the event of adverse changes in the financial condition of the issuer, the Fund could find it more difficult to sell such investments when the Adviser believes it advisable to do so or may be able to sell such investments only at prices lower than if such investments were more widely held. It may also be more difficult to determine the fair value of such investments for purposes of computing the Fund’s net asset value.
Benchmark Reference Rates Risk. Many debt securities, derivatives, and other financial instruments utilize benchmark or reference rates for variable interest rate calculations, including the Euro Interbank Offer Rate, Sterling Overnight Index Average Rate, and the Secured Overnight Financing Rate (each a “Reference Rate”). Instruments in which the Fund invests may pay interest at floating rates based on such Reference Rates or may be subject to interest caps or floors based on such Reference Rates. The Fund and issuers of instruments in which the Fund invests may also obtain financing at floating rates based on such Reference Rates. The elimination of a Reference Rate or any other changes to or reforms of the determination or supervision of Reference Rates could have an adverse impact on the market for, or value of, any instruments or payments linked to those Reference Rates. For example, some Reference Rates, as well as other types of rates and indices, are described as “benchmarks” and have been the subject of ongoing national and international regulatory reform, including under the European Union regulation on indices used as benchmarks in financial instruments and financial contracts. As a result, the manner of administration of benchmarks has changed and may further change in the future, with the result that relevant benchmarks may perform differently than in the past, the use of benchmarks that are not compliant with the new standards by certain supervised entities may be restricted, and certain benchmarks may be eliminated entirely. Such changes could cause increased market volatility and disruptions in liquidity for instruments that rely on or are impacted by such benchmarks. Additionally, there could be other consequences which cannot be predicted.
Cybersecurity Risk. With the increased use of technologies by Fund service providers to conduct business, such as the Internet, the Fund is susceptible to operational, information security and related risks. The Fund relies on communications technology, systems, and networks to engage with clients, employees, accounts, shareholders, and service providers, and a cyber incident may inhibit the Fund’s ability to use these technologies. In general, cyber incidents can result from deliberate attacks or unintentional events. Cyber attacks include, but are not limited to, gaining unauthorized access to digital systems (e.g., through “hacking” or malicious software coding) for purposes of misappropriating assets or sensitive information, corrupting data, or causing operational disruption. Cyber attacks may also be carried out in a manner that does not require gaining unauthorized access, such as causing denial-of-service attacks on websites. A denial-of-service attack is an effort to make network services unavailable to intended users, which could cause shareholders to lose access to their electronic accounts, potentially indefinitely. Employees and service providers also may not be able to access electronic systems to perform critical duties for the Fund, such as trading and NAV calculation, during a denial-of-service attack. There is also the possibility for systems failures due to malfunctions, user error and misconduct by employees and agents, natural disasters, or other foreseeable and unforeseeable events.
Because technology is consistently changing, new ways to carry out cyber attacks are always developing. Therefore, there is a chance that some risks have not been identified or prepared for, or that an attack may not be detected, which puts limitations on the Fund’s ability to plan for or respond to a cyber attack. Similar types of cybersecurity risks also are present for issuers of securities in which
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the Fund invests, which could have material adverse consequences for those issuers and result in a decline in the market price of their securities. Furthermore, as a result of cyber attacks, technological disruptions, malfunctions or failures, an exchange or market may close or suspend trading in specific securities or the entire market, which could prevent the Fund from, among other things, buying or selling the Fund or accurately pricing its securities. Like other funds and business enterprises, the Fund and its service providers have experienced, and will continue to experience, cyber incidents consistently. In addition to deliberate cyber attacks, unintentional cyber incidents can occur, such as the inadvertent release of confidential information by the Fund or its service providers.
The Fund uses third party service providers who are also heavily dependent on computers and technology for their operations. Cybersecurity failures by or breaches of the Fund’s investment adviser or administrator and other service providers (including, but not limited to, the custodian or transfer agent), and the issuers of securities in which the Fund invests, may disrupt and otherwise adversely affect their business operations. This may result in financial losses to the Fund, impede Fund trading, interfere with the Fund’s ability to calculate its NAV, limit a shareholder’s ability to purchase or redeem shares of the Fund or cause violations of applicable privacy and other laws, regulatory fines, penalties, reputational damage, reimbursement or other compensation costs, litigation costs, or additional compliance costs. While many of the Fund’s service providers have established business continuity plans and risk management systems intended to identify and mitigate cyber attacks, there are inherent limitations in such plans and systems, including the possibility that certain risks have not been identified. The Fund cannot control the cybersecurity plans and systems put in place by service providers to the Fund and issuers in which the Fund invests. The Fund and its shareholders could be negatively impacted as a result.
Operational Risk. The Fund’s service providers, including the investment adviser, may experience disruptions or operating errors that could negatively impact the Fund. Disruptive events, including (but not limited to) natural disasters and public health crises, may adversely affect the Fund’s ability to conduct business, in particular if the Fund’s employees or the employees of its service providers are unable or unwilling to perform their responsibilities as a result of any such event. While service providers are expected to have appropriate operational risk management policies and procedures, their methods of operational risk management may differ from the Fund’s in the setting of priorities, the personnel and resources available or the effectiveness of relevant controls. It also is not possible for Fund service providers to identify all of the operational risks that may affect the Fund or to develop processes and controls to completely eliminate or mitigate their occurrence or effects. To the extent the investment adviser or other service providers use or rely on proprietary and/or third-party technology and data, such uses are subject to operational risks associated with processing or human errors, systems or technology failures, cyber attacks, and errors caused by third party service providers and data sources. Additionally, legal and regulatory changes, such as those related to information privacy and data protection, may have an impact on the use of existing or emerging technologies, and may impact the investment adviser and the Fund. These and other operational risks could impede the Fund’s ability to effectively implement its investment strategy.
Temporary Investments. The Fund may invest in cash equivalents to invest daily cash balances or for temporary defensive purposes. Cash equivalents are highly liquid, short-term securities such as commercial paper, time deposits, certificates of deposit, short-term notes and short-term U.S. Government obligations.
Investment Restrictions. The following investment restrictions of the Fund are designated as fundamental policies and as such cannot be changed without the approval of the holders of a majority of the Fund’s outstanding voting securities, which as used in this SAI means the lesser of (a) 67% of the shares of the Fund present or represented by proxy at a meeting if the holders of more than 50% of the outstanding shares are present or represented at the meeting or (b) more than 50% of outstanding shares of the Fund. As a matter of fundamental policy the Fund may not:
(1) | Borrow money, except as permitted by the Investment Company Act of 1940, as amended (the “1940 Act”). The 1940 Act currently requires that any indebtedness incurred by a closed-end investment company have an asset coverage of at least 300%; |
(2) | Issue senior securities, as defined in the 1940 Act, other than (a) preferred shares which immediately after issuance will have asset coverage of at least 200%, (b) indebtedness which immediately after issuance will have asset coverage of at least 300% or (c) the borrowings permitted by investment restriction (1) above. The 1940 Act currently defines “senior security” as any bond, debenture, note or similar obligation or instrument constituting a security and evidencing indebtedness and any stock of a class having priority over any other class as to distribution of assets or payment of dividends. Debt and equity securities issued by a closed-end investment company meeting the foregoing asset coverage provisions are excluded from the general 1940 Act prohibition on the issuance of senior securities; |
(3) | Purchase securities on margin (but the Fund may obtain such short-term credits as may be necessary for the clearance of purchases and sales of securities). The purchase of investment assets with the proceeds of a permitted borrowing or securities offering will not be deemed to be the purchase of securities on margin; |
(4) | Underwrite securities issued by other persons, except insofar as it may technically be deemed to be an underwriter under the Securities Act of 1933, as amended, in selling or disposing of a portfolio investment; |
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(5) | Make loans to other persons, except by (a) the acquisition of loan interests, debt securities and other obligations in which the Fund is authorized to invest in accordance with its investment objectives and policies, (b) entering into repurchase agreements and (c) lending its portfolio securities; |
(6) | Purchase or sell real estate, although it may purchase and sell securities which are secured by interests in real estate and securities of issuers which invest or deal in real estate. The Fund reserves the freedom of action to hold and to sell real estate acquired as a result of the ownership of securities; |
(7) | Purchase or sell physical commodities or contracts for the purchase or sale of physical commodities. Physical commodities do not include futures contracts with respect to securities, securities indices, currencies, interest or other financial instruments; |
(8) | With respect to 75% of its total assets, invest more than 5% of its total assets in the securities of a single issuer or purchase more than 10% of the outstanding voting securities of a single issuer, except obligations issued or guaranteed by the U.S. government, its agencies or instrumentalities and except securities of other investment companies; and |
(9) | Invest 25% or more of its total assets in any single industry or group of industries (other than securities issued or guaranteed by the U.S. government or its agencies or instrumentalities). |
The Fund may borrow money as a temporary measure for extraordinary or emergency purposes, including the payment of dividends and the settlement of securities transactions which otherwise might require untimely dispositions of Fund securities. The 1940 Act currently requires that the Fund have 300% asset coverage with respect to all borrowings other than temporary borrowings.
For purposes of construing restriction (9), a large economic or market sector shall not be construed as a group of industries.
The Fund has adopted the following nonfundamental investment policy which may be changed by the Board without approval of the Fund’s shareholders. As a matter of nonfundamental policy, the Fund may not make short sales of securities or maintain a short position, unless at all times when a short position is open it either owns an equal amount of such securities or owns securities convertible into or exchangeable, without payment of any further consideration, for securities of the same issue as, and equal in amount to, the securities sold short.
Upon the Board’s approval, the Fund may invest more than 10% of its total assets in one or more other management investment companies (or may invest in affiliated investment companies) to the extent permitted by the 1940 Act and rules thereunder.
Whenever an investment policy or investment restriction set forth in the Prospectus or this SAI states a maximum percentage of assets that may be invested in any security or other assets or describes a policy regarding quality standards, such percentage limitation or standard shall be determined immediately after and as a result of the Fund’s acquisition of such security or asset. Accordingly, any later increase or decrease resulting from a change in values, assets or other circumstances or any subsequent rating change made by a rating service (or as determined by the Adviser if the security is not rated by a rating agency) will not compel the Fund to dispose of such security or other asset. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the Fund must always be in compliance with the borrowing policies set forth above.
TRUSTEES AND OFFICERS
The Board of Trustees of the Fund (the “Board”) is responsible for the overall management and supervision of the affairs of the Fund. The Board members and officers of the Fund are listed below. Except as indicated, each individual has held the office shown or other offices in the same company for the last five years. Each Trustee holds office until the annual meeting for the year in which his or her term expires and until his or her successor is elected and qualified, subject to a prior death, resignation, retirement, disqualification or removal. Under the terms of the Fund’s current Trustee retirement policy, an independent Trustee must retire and resign as a Trustee on the earlier of: (i) the first day of July following his or her 76th birthday; or (ii), with limited exception, December 31st of the 20th year in which he or she has served as a Trustee. However, if such retirement and resignation would cause the Fund to be out of compliance with Section 16 of the 1940 Act or any other regulations or guidance of the Securities and Exchange Commission (“SEC”), then such retirement and resignation will not become effective until such time as action has been taken for the Fund to be in compliance therewith. The “noninterested Trustees” consist of those Trustees who are not “interested persons” of the Fund, as that term is defined under the 1940 Act. The business address of each Board member and officer is One Post Office Square, Boston, Massachusetts 02109. As used in this SAI, “BMR” refers to Boston Management and Research, “EV” refers to EV LLC, “Eaton Vance” or “EVM” refers to Eaton Vance Management, “MSIM” refers to Morgan Stanley Investment Management, Inc. and “EVD” refers to Eaton Vance Distributors, Inc. EV is the trustee of each of Eaton Vance and BMR. Each of Eaton Vance, BMR, EVD and EV are indirect wholly owned subsidiaries of Morgan Stanley. Each officer affiliated with Eaton Vance may hold a position with other Eaton Vance affiliates that is comparable to his or her position with Eaton Vance listed below.
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Name and Year of Birth |
Fund Position(s)(1) |
Term of Office and |
Principal Occupation(s) During Past Five Years |
Number of Portfolios in in Fund Complex Overseen By Trustee(2) |
Other Directorships | |||||
ALAN C. BOWSER 1962 |
Class I Trustee | Until 2026. 3 years. Since 2023. |
Private investor. Formerly, Co-Head of the Americas Region, Chief Diversity Officer, Partner and Member of the Operating Committee at Bridgewater Associates, an asset management firm (2011-2023). Formerly, Managing Director and Head of Investment Services at UBS Wealth Management Americas (2007-2010). Formerly Managing Director and Head of Client Solutions, Citibank Private Bank (1999-2007). | 123 | Independent Director of Stout Risius Ross (a middle market professional services advisory firm) (since 2021). | |||||
MARK R. FETTING 1954 |
Class III Trustee | Until 2025. 3 years. Since 2016. |
Private investor. Formerly held various positions at Legg Mason, Inc. (investment management firm) (2000-2012), including President, Chief Executive Officer, Director and Chairman (2008-2012), Senior Executive Vice President (2004-2008) and Executive Vice President (2001-2004). Formerly, President of Legg Mason family of funds (2001-2008). Formerly, Division President and Senior Officer of Prudential Financial Group, Inc. and related companies (investment management firm) (1991-2000). | 123 | None | |||||
CYNTHIA E. FROST 1961 |
Class I Trustee | Until 2026. 3 years. Since 2014. |
Private investor. Formerly, Chief Investment Officer of Brown University (university endowment) (2000-2012). Formerly, Portfolio Strategist for Duke Management Company (university endowment manager) (1995-2000). Formerly, Managing Director, Cambridge Associates (investment consulting company) (1989-1995). Formerly, Consultant, Bain and Company (management consulting firm) (1987-1989). Formerly, Senior Equity Analyst, BA Investment Management Company (1983-1985). | 123 | None |
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Name and Year of Birth |
Fund Position(s)(1) |
Term of Office and |
Principal Occupation(s) During Past Five Years |
Number of Portfolios in in Fund Complex Overseen By Trustee(2) |
Other Directorships | |||||
GEORGE J. GORMAN 1952 |
Chairperson of the Board and Class II Trustee | Until 2027. 3 years. Chairperson of the Board since 2021 and Trustee since 2014. |
Principal at George J. Gorman LLC (consulting firm). Formerly, Senior Partner at Ernst & Young LLP (a registered public accounting firm) (1974-2009). | 123 | None | |||||
VALERIE A. MOSLEY 1960 |
Class III Trustee | Until 2025. 3 years. Since 2014. |
Chairwoman and Chief Executive Officer of Valmo Ventures (a consulting and investment firm). Founder of Upward Wealth, Inc., dba BrightUp, a fintech platform. Formerly, Partner and Senior Vice President, Portfolio Manager and Investment Strategist at Wellington Management Company, LLP (investment management firm) (1992-2012). Formerly, Chief Investment Officer, PG Corbin Asset Management (1990-1992). Formerly worked in institutional corporate bond sales at Kidder Peabody (1986-1990). | 123 | Director of DraftKings, Inc. (digital sports entertainment and gaming company) (since September 2020). Director of Envestnet, Inc. (provider of intelligent systems for wealth management and financial wellness) (since 2018). Formerly, Director of Dynex Capital, Inc. (mortgage REIT) (2013-2020) and Director of Groupon, Inc. (e-commerce provider) (2020-2022). | |||||
KEITH QUINTON 1958 |
Class II Trustee | Until 2027. 3 years. Since 2018. |
Private investor, researcher and lecturer. Formerly, Independent Investment Committee Member at New Hampshire Retirement System (2017-2021). Formerly, Portfolio Manager and Senior Quantitative Analyst at Fidelity Investments (investment management firm) (2001-2014). | 123 | Formerly, Director (2016-2021) and Chairman (2019-2021) of New Hampshire Municipal Bond Bank. | |||||
MARCUS L. SMITH 1966 |
Class III Trustee | Until 2025. 3 years. Since 2018. |
Private investor and independent corporate director. Formerly, Chief Investment Officer, Canada (2012-2017), Chief Investment Officer, Asia (2010-2012), Director of Asian Research (2004-2010) and portfolio manager (2001-2017) at MFS Investment Management (investment management firm). | 123 | Director of First Industrial Realty Trust, Inc. (an industrial REIT) (since 2021). Director of MSCI Inc. (global provider of investment decision support tools) (since 2017). Formerly, Director of DCT Industrial Trust Inc. (logistics real estate company) (2017-2018). | |||||
NANCY WISER STEFANI 1967 |
Class III Trustee | Until 2025. 3 years. Since 2022. |
Formerly, Executive Vice President and the Global Head of Operations at Wells Fargo Asset Management (2011-2021). | 123 | None |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 9 | SAI dated January 17, 2025 |
Name and Year of Birth |
Fund Position(s)(1) |
Term of Office and |
Principal Occupation(s) During Past Five Years |
Number of Portfolios in in Fund Complex Overseen By Trustee(2) |
Other Directorships | |||||
SUSAN J. SUTHERLAND 1957 |
Class II Trustee | Until 2027. 3 years. Since 2015. |
Private investor. Director of Ascot Group Limited and certain of its subsidiaries (insurance and reinsurance) (since 2017). Formerly, Director of Hagerty Holding Corp. (insurance) (2015-2018) and Montpelier Re Holdings Ltd. (insurance and reinsurance) (2013- 2015). Formerly, Associate, Counsel and Partner at Skadden, Arps, Slate, Meagher & Flom LLP (law firm) (1982-2013). | 123 | Formerly, Director of Kairos Acquisition Corp. (insurance/InsurTech acquisition company) (2021-2023). | |||||
SCOTT E. WENNERHOLM 1959 |
Class I Trustee | Until 2026. 3 years. Since 2016. |
Private investor. Formerly, Trustee at Wheelock College (postsecondary institution) (2012-2018). Formerly, Consultant at GF Parish Group (executive recruiting firm) (2016-2017). Formerly, Chief Operating Officer and Executive Vice President at BNY Mellon Asset Management (investment management firm) (2005-2011). Formerly, Chief Operating Officer and Chief Financial Officer at Natixis Global Asset Management (investment management firm) (1997-2004). Formerly, Vice President at Fidelity Investments Institutional Services (investment management firm) (1994-1997). | 123 | None |
(1) | The Board of Trustees is divided into three classes, each class having a term of three years to expire on the date of the third annual meeting following its election. |
(2) | Includes both funds and portfolios in a hub and spoke structure. |
Principal Officers who are not Trustees
Name and Year of Birth |
Fund Position(s) |
Length of Service |
Principal Occupation(s) During Past Five Years | |||
R. KELLY WILLIAMS JR. 1971 |
President | Since 2023 | President and Chief Operating Officer of Atlanta Capital Management Company, LLC. Officer of 21 registered investment companies managed by Eaton Vance or BMR. | |||
DEIDRE E. WALSH 1971 |
Vice President and Chief Legal Officer | Since 2009 | Vice President of Eaton Vance and BMR. Officer of 123 registered investment companies managed by Eaton Vance or BMR. Also Vice President of CRM and officer of 45 registered investment companies advised or administered by CRM since 2021. | |||
JAMES F. KIRCHNER 1967 |
Treasurer | Since 2007 | Vice President of Eaton Vance and BMR. Officer of 123 registered investment companies managed by Eaton Vance or BMR. Also Vice President of CRM and officer of 45 registered investment companies advised or administered by CRM since 2016. | |||
NICHOLAS S. DI LORENZO 1987 |
Secretary | Since 2022 | Officer of 123 registered investment companies managed by Eaton Vance or BMR. Formerly, associate (2012-2021) and counsel (2022) at Dechert LLP. | |||
LAURA T. DONOVAN 1976 |
Chief Compliance Officer | Since 2024 | Vice President of Eaton Vance and BMR. Officer of 123 registered investment companies managed by Eaton Vance or BMR. |
The Board has general oversight responsibility with respect to the business and affairs of the Fund. The Board has engaged an investment adviser and (if applicable) a sub-adviser (collectively the “adviser”) to manage the Fund. The Fund’s investment adviser also serves as administrator of the Fund. The Board is responsible for overseeing such adviser and administrator and other service providers to the Fund. The Board is currently composed of ten Trustees who are not “interested persons” of the Fund, as that term is defined in the 1940 Act (each a “noninterested Trustee”). In addition to six regularly scheduled meetings per year, the Board holds special meetings or informal conference calls to discuss specific matters that may require action prior to the next regular meeting. As discussed below, the Board has established six committees to assist the Board in performing its oversight responsibilities.
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 10 | SAI dated January 17, 2025 |
The Board has appointed a noninterested Trustee to serve in the role of Chairperson. The Chairperson’s primary role is to participate in the preparation of the agenda for meetings of the Board and the identification of information to be presented to the Board with respect to matters to be acted upon by the Board. The Chairperson also presides at all meetings of the Board and acts as a liaison with service providers, officers, attorneys, and other Board members generally between meetings. The Chairperson may perform such other functions as may be requested by the Board from time to time. In addition, the Board may appoint a noninterested Trustee to serve in the role of Vice-Chairperson. The Vice-Chairperson has the power and authority to perform any or all of the duties and responsibilities of the Chairperson in the absence of the Chairperson and/or as requested by the Chairperson. Except for any duties specified herein or pursuant to the Fund’s Declaration of Trust or By-laws, the designation of Chairperson or Vice-Chairperson does not impose on such noninterested Trustee any duties, obligations or liability that is greater than the duties, obligations or liability imposed on such person as a member of the Board, generally.
The Fund is subject to a number of risks, including, among others, investment, compliance, operational, and valuation risks. Risk oversight is part of the Board’s general oversight of the Fund and is addressed as part of various activities of the Board and its Committees. As part of its oversight of the Fund, the Board directly, or through a Committee, relies on and reviews reports from, among others, Fund management, the adviser, the administrator, the principal underwriter, the Chief Compliance Officer (the “CCO”), and other Fund service providers responsible for day-to-day oversight of Fund investments, operations and compliance to assist the Board in identifying and understanding the nature and extent of risks and determining whether, and to what extent, such risks can or should be mitigated. The Board also interacts with the CCO and with senior personnel of the adviser, administrator, principal underwriter and other Fund service providers and provides input on risk management issues during meetings of the Board and its Committees. Each of the adviser, administrator, principal underwriter and the other Fund service providers has its own, independent interest and responsibilities in risk management, and its policies and methods for carrying out risk management functions will depend, in part, on its individual priorities, resources and controls. It is not possible to identify all of the risks that may affect the Fund or to develop processes and controls to eliminate or mitigate their occurrence or effects. Moreover, it is necessary to bear certain risks (such as investment-related risks) to achieve the Fund’s goals.
The Board, with the assistance of management and with input from the Board’s various committees, reviews investment policies and risks in connection with its review of Fund performance. The Board has appointed a Fund CCO who oversees the implementation and testing of the Fund compliance program and reports to the Board regarding compliance matters for the Fund and its principal service providers. In addition, as part of the Board’s periodic review of the advisory, subadvisory (if applicable), distribution and other service provider agreements, the Board may consider risk management aspects of their operations and the functions for which they are responsible. With respect to valuation, the Board approves and periodically reviews valuation policies and procedures applicable to valuing the Fund’s shares. The administrator and the adviser are responsible for the implementation and day-to-day administration of these valuation policies and procedures and provide reports to the Audit Committee of the Board and the Board regarding these and related matters. In addition, the Audit Committee of the Board or the Board receives reports periodically from the independent public accounting firm for the Fund regarding tests performed by such firm on the valuation of all securities, as well as with respect to other risks associated with registered investment companies. Reports received from service providers, legal counsel and the independent public accounting firm assist the Board in performing its oversight function.
The Fund’s By-Laws set forth specific qualifications to serve as a Trustee. The Charter of the Governance Committee also sets forth certain factors that the Committee may take into account in considering noninterested Trustee candidates. In general, no one factor is decisive in the selection of an individual to join the Board. Among the factors the Board considers when concluding that an individual should serve on the Board are the following: (i) knowledge in matters relating to the mutual fund industry; (ii) experience as a director or senior officer of public companies; (iii) educational background; (iv) reputation for high ethical standards and professional integrity; (v) specific financial, technical or other expertise possessed by the individual or other experience or background of the individual, and the extent to which such expertise, experience or background would complement the Board members’ existing mix of skills, core competencies and qualifications and diversity of experiences and background; (vi) perceived ability to contribute to the ongoing functions of the Board, including the ability and commitment to attend meetings regularly and work collaboratively with other members of the Board; (vii) the ability to qualify as a noninterested Trustee for purposes of the 1940 Act and any other actual or potential conflicts of interest involving the individual and the Fund; and (viii) such other factors as the Board determines to be relevant in light of the existing composition of the Board and any anticipated vacancies.
Among the attributes or skills common to all Board members are their ability to review critically, evaluate, question and discuss information provided to them, to interact effectively with the other members of the Board, management, sub-advisers, other service providers, counsel and independent registered public accounting firms, and to exercise effective and independent business judgment in the performance of their duties as members of the Board. Each Board member’s ability to perform his or her duties
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 11 | SAI dated January 17, 2025 |
effectively has been attained through the Board member’s business, consulting, public service and/or academic positions and through experience from service as a member of the Boards of the Eaton Vance family of funds (“Eaton Vance Fund Boards”) (and/or in other capacities, including for any predecessor funds), public companies, or non-profit entities or other organizations as set forth below. Each Board member’s ability to perform his or her duties effectively also has been enhanced by his or her educational background, professional training, and/or other life experiences. Six of the ten currently serving noninterested Trustees bring gender and/or racial diversity to the Board.
In respect of each current member of the Board, the individual’s substantial professional accomplishments and experience, including in fields related to the operations of registered investment companies, were a significant factor in the determination that the individual should serve as a member of the Board. The following is a summary of each Board member’s particular professional experience and additional considerations that contributed to the Board’s conclusion that he or she should serve as a member of the Board:
Alan C. Bowser. Mr. Bowser has served as a Board member of the Eaton Vance open-end funds since 2022 and of the Eaton Vance closed-end funds since 2023. Mr. Bowser has over 25 years of experience in the financial services industry, most of which has been dedicated to leading investment advisory teams serving institutions, family offices, and ultra-high net worth individuals in the U.S. and Latin America. From 2011-2023, Mr. Bowser served in several capacities at Bridgewater Associates, an asset management firm, including most recently serving as Chief Diversity Officer and Co-Head of the Americas Region in addition to being a Partner and a member of the Operating Committee. Prior to joining Bridgewater Associates, he was Managing Director and Head of Investment Services at UBS Wealth Management Americas from 2007 to 2010 and, before that, Managing Director and Head of Client Solutions for the Latin America Division at the Citibank Private Bank from 1999 to 2007. Mr. Bowser has been an Independent Director of Stout Risius Ross since 2021, a founding Board Member and current Board Chair of the Black Hedge Fund Professionals Network and has served on the Boards of the Robert Toigo Foundation, the New York Urban League, the University of Pennsylvania, and as Vice Chairman of the Greater Miami Chamber of Commerce Task Force on Ethics. In 2020, he was recognized as one of the top 100 “EMPower Ethnic Minority Executive Role Models” and in 2022 he was recognized by Business Insider magazine as one of 14 “Diversity Trailblazers” making corporate America more inclusive.
Mark R. Fetting. Mr. Fetting has served as a member of the Eaton Vance Fund Boards since 2016 and is the Chairperson of the Contract Review Committee. He has over 30 years of experience in the investment management industry as an executive and in various leadership roles. From 2000 through 2012, Mr. Fetting served in several capacities at Legg Mason, Inc., including most recently serving as President, Chief Executive Officer, Director and Chairman from 2008 to his retirement in 2012. He also served as a Director/Trustee and Chairman of the Legg Mason family of funds from 2008-2012 and Director/Trustee of the Royce family of funds from 2001-2012. From 2001 through 2008, Mr. Fetting also served as President of the Legg Mason family of funds. From 1991 through 2000, Mr. Fetting served as Division President and Senior Officer of Prudential Financial Group, Inc. and related companies. Early in his professional career, Mr. Fetting was a Vice President at T. Rowe Price and served in leadership roles within the firm’s mutual fund division from 1981-1987.
Cynthia E. Frost. Ms. Frost has served as a member of the Eaton Vance Fund Boards since 2014. From 2000 through 2012, Ms. Frost was the Chief Investment Officer of Brown University, where she oversaw the evaluation, selection and monitoring of the third party investment managers who managed the university’s endowment. From 1995 through 2000, Ms. Frost was a Portfolio Strategist for Duke Management Company, which oversaw Duke University’s endowment. Ms. Frost also served in various investment and consulting roles at Cambridge Associates from 1989-1995, Bain and Company from 1987-1989 and BA Investment Management Company from 1983-1985. She serves as a member of the investment committee of The MCNC Endowment.
George J. Gorman. Mr. Gorman has served as a member of the Eaton Vance Fund Boards since 2014 and is the Independent Chairperson of the Board. From 1974 through 2009, Mr. Gorman served in various capacities at Ernst & Young LLP, including as a Senior Partner in the Asset Management Group (from 1988) specializing in managing engagement teams responsible for auditing mutual funds registered with the SEC, hedge funds and private equity funds. Mr. Gorman also has experience serving as an independent trustee of other mutual fund complexes, including the Bank of America Money Market Funds Series Trust from 2011-2014 and the Ashmore Funds from 2010-2014.
Valerie A. Mosley. Ms. Mosley has served as a member of the Eaton Vance Fund Boards since 2014 and is the Chairperson of the Governance Committee. In 2020, she founded Upward Wealth, Inc., doing business as BrightUp, a fintech platform focused on helping everyday workers grow their net worth and reinforce their self-worth. From 1992 through 2012, Ms. Mosley served in several capacities at Wellington Management Company, LLP, an investment management firm, including as a Partner, Senior Vice President, Portfolio Manager and Investment Strategist. Ms. Mosley also served as Chief Investment Officer at PG Corbin Asset Management from 1990-1992 and worked in institutional corporate bond sales at Kidder Peabody from 1986-1990. She is a Director of Envestnet, Inc., a provider of intelligent systems for wealth management and financial wellness and DraftKings, Inc., a digital sports entertainment and gaming company. In addition, she is also a board member of Caribou Financial, Inc., an auto loan
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 12 | SAI dated January 17, 2025 |
refinancing company. Ms. Mosley previously served as a Director of Dynex Capital, Inc., a mortgage REIT, from 2013-2020, a Director of Progress Investment Management Company, a manager of emerging managers, until 2020, and a Director of Groupon, Inc., an e-commerce platform from 2020-2022. She serves as a trustee or board member of several major non-profit organizations and endowments.
Keith Quinton. Mr. Quinton has served as a member of the Eaton Vance Fund Boards since 2018 and is the Chairperson of the Closed-End Fund Committee. He had over thirty years of experience in the investment industry before retiring from Fidelity Investments in 2014. Prior to joining Fidelity, Mr. Quinton was a vice president and quantitative analyst at MFS Investment Management from 2000-2001. From 1997 through 2000, he was a senior quantitative analyst at Santander Global Advisors and, from 1995 through 1997, Mr. Quinton was senior vice president in the quantitative equity research department at Putnam Investments. Prior to joining Putnam Investments, Mr. Quinton served in various investment roles at Eberstadt Fleming, Falconwood Securities Corporation and Drexel Burnham Lambert, where he began his career in the investment industry as a senior quantitative analyst in 1983. Mr. Quinton served as an Independent Investment Committee Member of the New Hampshire Retirement System, a five member committee that manages investments based on the investment policy and asset allocation approved by the board of trustees (2017-2021), and as a Director (2016-2021) and Chairman (2019-2021) of the New Hampshire Municipal Bond Bank.
Marcus L. Smith. Mr. Smith has served as a member of the Eaton Vance Fund Boards since 2018 and is the Chairperson of the Portfolio Management Committee. Mr. Smith has been a Director of First Industrial Realty Trust, Inc., a fully integrated owner, operator and developer of industrial real estate, since 2021, where he serves on the Investment and Nominating/Corporate Governance Committees. Since 2017, Mr. Smith has been a Director of MSCI Inc., a leading provider of investment decision support tools worldwide, where he serves on the Compensation and Talent Management Committee and Strategy & Finance Committee. From 2017 through 2018, he served as a Director of DCT Industrial Trust Inc., a leading logistics real estate company, where he served as a member of the Nominating and Corporate Governance and Audit Committees. From 1994 through 2017, Mr. Smith served in several capacities at MFS Investment Management, an investment management firm, where he managed the MFS Institutional International Fund for 17 years and the MFS Concentrated International Fund for 10 years. In addition to his portfolio management duties, Mr. Smith served as Chief Investment Officer, Canada from 2012-2017, Chief Investment Officer, Asia from 2010-2012, and Director of Asian Research from 2005-2010. Prior to joining MFS, Mr. Smith was a senior consultant at Andersen Consulting (now known as Accenture) from 1988-1992. Mr. Smith served as a United States Army Reserve Officer from 1987-1992. He was also a trustee of the University of Mount Union from 2008-2020 and served on the Boston advisory board of the Posse Foundation from 2015-2021. Mr. Smith currently sits on the Harvard Medical School Advisory Council on Education, the Board of Directors for Facing History and Ourselves and is a Trustee of the Core Knowledge Foundation.
Nancy Wiser Stefani. Ms. Stefani has served as a member of the Eaton Vance Fund Boards since 2022. She also serves as a corporate Director for Rimes Technologies, a data management company based in London (since 2022).Stefani has over 30 years of experience in the investment management and financial services industry. From 2011-2021, Ms. Stefani served as an Executive Vice President and the Global Head of Operations at Wells Fargo Asset Management, where she oversaw operations and governance matters. In the role of governance, Ms. Stefani served as chairman of the board for the Wells Fargo Asset Management United Kingdom and Luxembourg legal entities as well as the Luxembourg funds. Additionally, Ms. Stefani served as the Treasurer for the Wells Fargo Funds from 2012-2021. Prior to joining Wells Fargo Asset Management, Ms. Stefani served as Chief Operating Officer and Chief Compliance Officer for two registered asset management companies where she oversaw all non-investment activities. She currently serves on the University of Minnesota Foundation Board of Trustees (since 2022) and previously served on several other non-profit boards including her alma mater Providence College Business Advisory board, Boston Scores and the National Black MBA Advisory board.
Susan J. Sutherland. Ms. Sutherland has served as a member of the Eaton Vance Fund Boards since 2015 and is the Chairperson of the Compliance Reports and Regulatory Matters Committee. She is also a Director of Ascot Group Limited and certain of its subsidiaries. Ascot Group Limited, through its related businesses including Syndicate 1414 at Lloyd’s of London, is a leading global underwriter of specialty property and casualty insurance and reinsurance. In addition, Ms. Sutherland was a Director of Kairos Acquisition Corp. from 2021 until its dissolution in 2023, which had concentrated on acquisition and business combination efforts within the insurance and insurance technology (also known as “InsurTech”) sectors. Ms. Sutherland was also a Director of Montpelier Re Holdings Ltd., a global provider of customized reinsurance and insurance products, from 2013 until its sale in 2015 and of Hagerty Holding Corp., a leading provider of specialized automobile and marine insurance from 2015-2018. From 1982 through 2013, Ms. Sutherland was an associate, counsel and then a partner in the Financial Institutions Group of Skadden, Arps, Slate, Meagher & Flom LLP, where she primarily represented U.S. and international insurance and reinsurance companies, investment banks and private equity firms in insurance-related corporate transactions. In addition, Ms. Sutherland has also served as a board member of prominent non-profit organizations.
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 13 | SAI dated January 17, 2025 |
Scott E. Wennerholm. Mr. Wennerholm has served as a member of the Eaton Vance Fund Boards since 2016 and is the Chairperson of the Audit Committee. He has over 30 years of experience in the financial services industry in various leadership and executive roles. Mr. Wennerholm served as Chief Operating Officer and Executive Vice President at BNY Mellon Asset Management from 2005-2011. He also served as Chief Operating Officer and Chief Financial Officer at Natixis Global Asset Management from 1997-2004 and was a Vice President at Fidelity Investments Institutional Services from 1994-1997. In addition, Mr. Wennerholm served as a Trustee at Wheelock College, a postsecondary institution from 2012-2018.
The Board(s) of the Fund has several standing Committees, including the Governance Committee, the Audit Committee, the Portfolio Management Committee, the Compliance Reports and Regulatory Matters Committee, the Contract Review Committee and the Closed-End Fund Committee. Each of the Committees are comprised of only noninterested Trustees.
Mses. Mosley (Chairperson), Frost, Stefani and Sutherland, and Messrs. Bowser, Fetting, Gorman, Quinton, Smith and Wennerholm are members of the Governance Committee. The purpose of the Governance Committee is to consider, evaluate and make recommendations to the Board with respect to the structure, membership and operation of the Board and the Committees thereof, including the nomination and selection of noninterested Trustees and a Chairperson of the Board and the compensation of such persons. During the fiscal year ended September 30, 2024, the Governance Committee convened four times.
The Governance Committee will, when a vacancy exists, consider a nominee for Trustee recommended by a shareholder, provided that such recommendation is submitted in writing to the Fund’s Secretary at the principal executive office of the Fund. Such recommendations must be accompanied by biographical and occupational data on the candidate (including whether the candidate would be an “interested person” of the Fund), a written consent by the candidate to be named as a nominee and to serve as Trustee if elected, record and ownership information for the recommending shareholder with respect to the Fund, and a description of any arrangements or understandings regarding recommendation of the candidate for consideration.
Messrs. Wennerholm (Chairperson), Gorman and Quinton and Ms. Stefani are members of the Audit Committee. The Board has designated Messrs. Gorman and Wennerholm, each a noninterested Trustee, as “audit committee financial experts” as that term is defined in the applicable SEC rules. The Audit Committee’s purposes are to (i) oversee the Fund’s accounting and financial reporting processes, its internal control over financial reporting, and, as appropriate, the internal control over financial reporting of certain service providers; (ii) oversee or, as appropriate, assist Board oversight of the quality and integrity of the Fund’s financial statements and the independent audit thereof; (iii) oversee, or, as appropriate, assist Board oversight of, the Fund’s compliance with legal and regulatory requirements that relate to the Fund’s accounting and financial reporting, internal control over financial reporting and independent audits; (iv) approve prior to appointment the engagement and, when appropriate, replacement of the independent registered public accounting firm, and, if applicable, nominate the independent registered public accounting firm to be proposed for shareholder ratification in any proxy statement of the Fund; (v) evaluate the qualifications, independence and performance of the independent registered public accounting firm and the audit partner in charge of leading the audit; and (vi) prepare, as necessary, audit committee reports consistent with the requirements of applicable SEC and stock exchange rules for inclusion in the proxy statement of the Fund. During the fiscal year ended September 30, 2024, the Audit Committee convened ten times.
Messrs. Fetting (Chairperson), Bowser, Gorman, Quinton, Smith and Wennerholm, and Mses. Frost, Mosley, Stefani and Sutherland are members of the Contract Review Committee. The purposes of the Contract Review Committee are to consider, evaluate and make recommendations to the Board concerning the following matters: (i) contractual arrangements with each service provider to the Fund, including advisory, sub-advisory, transfer agency, custodial and fund accounting, distribution services and administrative services; (ii) any and all other matters in which any service provider (including Eaton Vance or any affiliated entity thereof) has an actual or potential conflict of interest with the interests of the Fund or investors therein; and (iii) any other matter appropriate for review by the noninterested Trustees, unless the matter is within the responsibilities of the other Committees of the Board. During the fiscal year ended September 30, 2024, the Contract Review Committee convened five times.
Messrs. Smith (Chairperson), Bowser and Wennerholm and Mses. Frost and Mosley are members of the Portfolio Management Committee. The purposes of the Portfolio Management Committee are to: (i) assist the Board in its oversight of the portfolio management process employed by the Fund and its investment adviser and sub-adviser(s), if applicable, relative to the Fund’s stated objective(s), strategies and restrictions; (ii) assist the Board in its oversight of the trading policies and procedures and risk management techniques applicable to the Fund; and (iii) assist the Board in its monitoring of the performance results of all funds and portfolios, giving special attention to the performance of certain funds and portfolios that it or the Board identifies from time to time. During the fiscal year ended September 30, 2024, the Portfolio Management Committee convened seven times.
Mses. Sutherland (Chairperson) and Stefani and Messrs. Fetting and Quinton are members of the Compliance Reports and Regulatory Matters Committee. The purposes of the Compliance Reports and Regulatory Matters Committee are to: (i) assist the Board in its oversight role with respect to compliance issues and certain other regulatory matters affecting the Fund; (ii) serve as a liaison between the Board and the Fund’s CCO; and (iii) serve as a “qualified legal compliance committee” within the rules promulgated by the SEC. During the fiscal year ended September 30, 2024, the Compliance Reports and Regulatory Matters Committee convened eight times.
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 14 | SAI dated January 17, 2025 |
Messrs. Quinton (Chairperson) and Fetting and Ms. Sutherland are members of the Closed-End Fund Committee. The purpose of the Closed-End Fund Committee is to consider, evaluate and make recommendations to the Board with respect to issues specifically related to Eaton Vance Closed-End Funds. The Closed-End Fund Committee was established after the fiscal year ended September 30, 2024. However, during the fiscal year ended September 30, 2024, a predecessor to the Closed-End Fund Committee, the Ad Hoc Committee for Closed-End Fund Matters, convened eight times.
Share Ownership. The following table shows the dollar range of equity securities beneficially owned by each Trustee in the Fund and in the Eaton Vance family of funds overseen by the Trustee, which may include shares, if any, deemed to be beneficially owned by a noninterested Trustee through a deferred compensation plan as of December 31, 2024.
Name of Trustee |
Dollar Range of Equity Securities Beneficially Owned in the Fund |
Aggregate Dollar Range of Equity Securities Beneficially Owned in Funds Overseen by Trustee in the Eaton Vance Family of Funds |
||||||
Noninterested Trustees |
||||||||
Alan C. Bowser |
None | Over $100,000 | ||||||
Mark R. Fetting |
None | Over $100,000 | ||||||
Cynthia E. Frost |
None | Over $100,000 | ||||||
George J. Gorman |
None | Over $100,000 | ||||||
Valerie A. Mosley |
None | Over $100,000 | ||||||
Keith Quinton |
None | Over $100,000 | ||||||
Marcus L. Smith |
None | Over $100,000 | ||||||
Nancy Wiser Stefani |
None | Over $100,000 | ||||||
Susan J. Sutherland |
None | Over $100,000 | ||||||
Scott E. Wennerholm |
None | Over $100,000 |
As of December 31, 2024, no noninterested Trustee or any of their immediate family members owned beneficially or of record any class of securities of Morgan Stanley, EVD, any sub-adviser, if applicable, or any person controlling, controlled by or under common control with Morgan Stanley or EVD or any sub-adviser, if applicable, collectively (“Affiliated Entity”).
During the calendar years ended December 31, 2023 and December 31, 2024, no noninterested Trustee (or their immediate family members) had:
1. | Any direct or indirect interest in any Affiliated Entity; |
2. | Any direct or indirect material interest in any transaction or series of similar transactions with (i) the Fund; (ii) another fund managed or distributed by any Affiliated Entity; (iii) any Affiliated Entity; or (iv) an officer of any of the above; or |
3. | Any direct or indirect relationship with (i) the Fund; (ii) another fund managed or distributed by any Affiliated Entity; (iii) any Affiliated Entity; or (iv) an officer of any of the above. |
During the calendar years ended December 31, 2023 and December 31, 2024, no officer of any Affiliated Entity served on the board of directors of a company where a noninterested Trustee of the Fund or any of their immediate family members served as an officer.
Noninterested Trustees may elect to defer receipt of all or a percentage of their annual fees in accordance with the terms of a Trustees Deferred Compensation Plan (the “Deferred Compensation Plan”). Under the Deferred Compensation Plan, an eligible Board member may elect to have his or her deferred fees invested in the shares of one or more funds in the Eaton Vance family of funds, and the amount paid to the Board members under the Deferred Compensation Plan will be determined based upon the performance of such investments. Deferral of Board member’s fees in accordance with the Deferred Compensation Plan will have a negligible effect on the assets, liabilities, and net income of a participating fund or portfolio, and do not require that a participating Board member be retained. There is no retirement plan for Board members.
The fees and expenses of the noninterested Trustees of the Fund are paid by the Fund. A Board member who is a member of the Eaton Vance organization receives no compensation from the Fund. During the fiscal year ended September 30, 2024, the Trustees
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 15 | SAI dated January 17, 2025 |
of the Fund earned the following compensation in their capacities as Board members from the Fund. For the year ended December 31, 2024, the Board members earned the following compensation in their capacities as members of the Eaton Vance Fund Boards(1):
Source of |
Alan C. Bowser |
Mark R. Fetting |
Cynthia E. Frost |
George J. Gorman |
Valerie A. Mosley |
Keith Quinton |
Marcus L. Smith |
Nancy Wiser Stefani |
Susan J. Sutherland |
Scott E. Wennerholm |
||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
Fund |
$ | 4,265 | $ | 4,642 | $ | 4,265 | $ | 5,884 | $ | 4,642 | (2) | $ | 4,564 | $ | 4,642 | $ | 4,427 | $ | 4,668 | $ | 4,804 | |||||||||||||||||||
Fund and Fund Complex(1) |
$ | 395,000 | $ | 430,000 | $ | 395,000 | $ | 545,000 | $ | 430,000 | (3) | $ | 420,000 | $ | 430,000 | $ | 410,000 | $ | 432,500 | $ | 445,000 |
(1) | As of January 17, 2025, the Eaton Vance fund complex consists of 123 registered investment companies or series thereof. |
(2) | Includes $327 of deferred compensation. |
(3) | Includes $30,000 of deferred compensation. |
INVESTMENT ADVISORY AND OTHER SERVICES
The Adviser. Eaton Vance, its affiliates and its predecessor companies have been managing assets of individuals and institutions since 1924 and of investment companies since 1931. They maintain a large staff of experienced fixed-income, senior loan and equity investment professionals to service the needs of their clients. The equity group covers stocks ranging from blue chip to emerging growth companies. Eaton Vance and its affiliates act as adviser to a family of mutual funds, and individual and various institutional accounts. The fixed-income group focuses on all kinds of taxable investment-grade and high-yield securities, tax-exempt investment-grade and high-yield securities, and U.S. government securities. The senior loan group focuses on senior floating rate loans, unsecured loans and other floating rate debt securities such as notes, bonds and asset backed securities, including corporations, hospitals, retirement plans, universities, foundations and trusts.
The Investment Advisory Agreement (the “Advisory Agreement”) with the Adviser continues in effect through and including the second anniversary of its execution and shall continue in full force and effect indefinitely thereafter, but only so long as such continuance after such second anniversary is specifically approved at least annually (i) by the vote of a majority of those Trustees of the Fund who are not interested persons of the Adviser or the Fund cast in person at a meeting specifically called for the purpose of voting on such approval and (ii) by the Board of Trustees of the Fund or by vote of a majority of the outstanding voting securities of the Fund. The Administrative Services Agreement (“the “Administration Agreement”) continues in effect through and including the second anniversary of its execution and shall continue in full force and effect indefinitely thereafter, but only so long as such continuance after such second anniversary is specifically approved at least annually (i) by the Board of Trustees of the Fund and (ii) by the vote of a majority of those Trustees of the Fund who are not interested persons of Eaton Vance or the Fund. Each Agreement may be terminated at any time without penalty on sixty (60) days’ written notice by either party, or by vote of the majority of the outstanding voting securities of the Fund, and the Advisory Agreement will terminate automatically in the event of its assignment. Each Agreement provides that the investment adviser may render services to others. Each Agreement also provides that Eaton Vance shall not be liable for any loss incurred in connection with the performance of its duties, or action taken or omitted under the Agreements, in the absence of willful misfeasance, bad faith, gross negligence or reckless disregard of its obligations and duties thereunder, and Eaton Vance shall not be liable for any losses sustained in the acquisition, holding or disposition of any security or other investment. Each Agreement is not intended to, and does not, confer upon any person not a party to it any right, benefit or remedy of any nature.
The Advisory Agreement provides that Eaton Vance may engage one or more investment sub-advisers to assist with some or all aspects of the management of the Fund’s investments subject to such approvals as are required under the 1940 Act. The Advisory Agreement provides that Eaton Vance may terminate any sub-advisory agreement entered into and directly assume any functions performed by the sub-adviser, upon approval of the Board of Trustees, without the need for shareholder approval.
As of September 30, 2024, the Fund had net assets of $818,060,319. For the fiscal years ended September 2024, 2023 and 2022, the Fund incurred $7,371,314, $6,332,855 and $6,940,647, respectively, in advisory fees.
Pursuant to the Administration Agreement, based on the current level of compensation payable to Eaton Vance by the Fund under the Advisory Agreement, Eaton Vance receives no compensation from the Fund in respect of the services rendered and the facilities provided as administrator under the Administration Agreement.
Information About Eaton Vance. Eaton Vance is a business trust organized under the laws of The Commonwealth of Massachusetts. EV serves as trustee of Eaton Vance. EV, Eaton Vance and BMR are indirect wholly owned subsidiaries of Morgan Stanley (NYSE: MS), a preeminent global financial services firm engaged in securities trading and brokerage activities, as well as providing investment banking, research and analysis, financing and financial advisory services.
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 16 | SAI dated January 17, 2025 |
Portfolio Managers. The portfolio managers of the Fund are listed below. The following table shows, as of the Fund’s most recent fiscal year end, the number of accounts the portfolio managers managed in each of the listed categories and the total assets (in millions of dollars) in the accounts managed within each category. The table also shows the number of accounts with respect to which the advisory fee is based on the performance of the account, if any, and the total assets (in millions of dollars) in those accounts.
Number of All Accounts |
Total Assets of All Accounts |
Number of Accounts Paying a Performance Fee |
Total Assets of Accounts Paying a Performance Fee |
|||||||||||||
Charles Gaffney(1) |
||||||||||||||||
Registered Investment Companies(2) |
12 | $ | 11,858.6 | 0 | $ | 0 | ||||||||||
Other Pooled Investment Vehicles |
0 | $ | 0 | 0 | $ | 0 | ||||||||||
Other Accounts |
0 | $ | 0 | 0 | $ | 0 | ||||||||||
Douglas R. Rogers, CFA, CMT(1)(3) |
||||||||||||||||
Registered Investment Companies(2) |
12 | $ | 10,133.1 | 0 | $ | 0 | ||||||||||
Other Pooled Investment Vehicles |
1 | $ | 20.6 | 0 | $ | 0 | ||||||||||
Other Accounts |
5 | $ | 1,877.8 | 0 | $ | 0 |
(1) | This portfolio manager serves as portfolio manager of one or more registered investment companies that invests or may invest in one or more underlying registered investment companies in the Eaton Vance family of funds or other pooled investment vehicles sponsored by Eaton Vance. The underlying investment companies may be managed by this portfolio manager or another portfolio manager. |
(2) | Includes the Fund. |
(3) | This portfolio manager may provide advisory services for certain of the “Other Accounts” on a nondiscretionary or model basis. For “Other Accounts” that are part of a wrap account program, the number of accounts is the number of sponsors for which the portfolio manager provides advisory services rather than the number of individual customer accounts within each wrap account program. The assets managed may include assets advised on a nondiscretionary or model basis. |
The following table shows the dollar range of Fund shares beneficially owned by each portfolio manager as of the Fund’s most recent fiscal year end and in the Eaton Vance family of funds as of December 31, 2024.
Portfolio Manager |
Dollar Range of Equity Securities Beneficially Owned in the Fund |
Aggregate Dollar Range of Equity Securities Beneficially Owned in the Eaton Vance Family of Funds | ||
Charles Gaffney |
None | $100,001 - $500,000 | ||
Douglas R. Rogers, CFA, CMT |
None | $500,001 - $1,000,000 |
It is possible that conflicts of interest may arise in connection with a portfolio manager’s management of the Fund’s investments on the one hand and the investments of other accounts for which a portfolio manager is responsible on the other. For example, a portfolio manager may have conflicts of interest in allocating management time, resources and investment opportunities among the Fund and other accounts he advises. In addition, due to differences in the investment strategies or restrictions between the Fund and the other accounts, the portfolio manager may take action with respect to another account that differs from the action taken with respect to the Fund. In some cases, another account managed by a portfolio manager may compensate the investment adviser based on the performance of the securities held by that account. The existence of such a performance based fee may create additional conflicts of interest for the portfolio manager in the allocation of management time, resources and investment opportunities. Whenever conflicts of interest arise, the portfolio manager will endeavor to exercise his discretion in a manner that he believes is equitable to all interested persons. The investment adviser has adopted several policies and procedures designed to address these potential conflicts including a code of ethics and policies that govern the investment adviser’s trading practices, including among other things the aggregation and allocation of trades among clients, brokerage allocations, cross trades and best execution.
Compensation Structure for Eaton Vance. The compensation structure of MSIM, including Eaton Vance and its affiliates that are investment advisers (“Investment Management”) is based on a total reward system of base salary and incentive compensation, which is paid either in the form of cash bonus, or for employees meeting the specified deferred compensation eligibility threshold, partially as a cash bonus and partially as mandatory deferred compensation. Investment Management compensates employees based on principles of pay-for-performance, market competitiveness and risk management. Deferred compensation granted to Investment Management employees is generally granted as a mix of deferred cash awards under the Investment Management Alignment Plan (IMAP) and equity-based awards in the form of stock units. The portion of incentive compensation granted in the form of a deferred compensation award and the terms of such awards are determined annually by the Compensation, Management Development and Succession Committee of the Morgan Stanley Board of Directors.
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 17 | SAI dated January 17, 2025 |
Base salary compensation. Generally, portfolio managers receive base salary compensation based on the level of their position with the adviser.
Incentive compensation. In addition to base compensation, portfolio managers may receive discretionary year-end compensation.
Incentive compensation may include:
• | Cash bonus |
• | Deferred compensation: |
• | A mandatory program that defers a portion of incentive compensation into restricted stock units or other awards based on Morgan Stanley common stock or other plans that are subject to vesting and other conditions. |
• | IMAP is a cash-based deferred compensation plan designed to increase the alignment of participants’ interests with the interests of clients. For eligible employees, a portion of their deferred compensation is mandatorily deferred into IMAP on an annual basis. Awards granted under IMAP are notionally invested in referenced funds available pursuant to the plan, which are funds advised by Investment Management. Portfolio managers are required to notionally invest a minimum of 40% of their account balance in the designated funds that they manage and are included in the IMAP notional investment fund menu. |
• | Deferred compensation awards are typically subject to vesting over a multi-year period and are subject to cancellation through the payment date for competition, cause (i.e., any act or omission that constitutes a breach of obligation to the Fund, including failure to comply with internal compliance, ethics or risk management standards, and failure or refusal to perform duties satisfactorily, including supervisory and management duties), disclosure of proprietary information, and solicitation of employees or clients. Awards are also subject to clawback through the payment date if an employee’s act or omission (including with respect to direct supervisory responsibilities) causes a restatement of the firm’s consolidated financial results, constitutes a violation of the firm’s global risk management principles, policies and standards, or causes a loss of revenue associated with a position on which the employee was paid and the employee operated outside of internal control policies. |
Eligibility for, and the amount of any, discretionary compensation is subject to a multi-dimensional process. Specifically, consideration is given to one or more of the following factors, which can vary by portfolio management team and circumstances:
• | Revenue and profitability of the business and/or each fund/account managed by the portfolio manager |
• | Individual contribution and performance |
• | Contribution to client objectives |
• | Revenue and profitability of the firm |
• | Return on equity and risk factors of both the business units and Morgan Stanley |
• | Assets managed by the portfolio manager |
• | External market conditions |
• | New business development and business sustainability |
• | Team, product and/or MSIM and its affiliates that are investment advisers (including Eaton Vance) performance |
• | The pre-tax investment performance of the funds/accounts managed by the portfolio manager (which may, in certain cases, be measured against the applicable benchmark(s) and/or peer group(s) over one, three and five-year periods) |
Further, the firm’s Global Incentive Compensation Discretion Policy requires compensation managers to consider only legitimate, business related factors when exercising discretion in determining variable incentive compensation, including adherence to Morgan Stanley’s core values, conduct, disciplinary actions in the current performance year, risk management and risk outcomes.
It is possible that conflicts of interest may arise in connection with a portfolio manager’s management of the Fund’s investments on the one hand and the investments of other accounts for which a portfolio manager is responsible on the other. For example, a portfolio manager may have conflicts of interest in allocating management time, resources and investment opportunities among the Fund and other accounts he advises. In addition, due to differences in the investment strategies or restrictions between the Fund and the other accounts, the portfolio manager may take action with respect to another account that differs from the action taken with respect to the Fund. In some cases, another account managed by a portfolio manager may compensate the investment adviser based on the performance of the securities held by that account. The existence of such a performance based fee may create additional conflicts of interest for the portfolio manager in the allocation of management time, resources and investment opportunities. Whenever conflicts of interest arise, the portfolio manager will endeavor to exercise his discretion in a manner that he believes is equitable to all interested persons. The Adviser has adopted several policies and procedures designed to address these potential conflicts including a code of ethics and policies that govern the investment adviser’s trading practices, including among other things the aggregation and allocation of trades among clients, brokerage allocations, cross trades and best execution.
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 18 | SAI dated January 17, 2025 |
Investment Advisory Services. Under the general supervision of the Fund’s Board, Eaton Vance will carry out the investment and reinvestment of the assets of the Fund, will furnish continuously an investment program with respect to the Fund, will determine which securities should be purchased, sold or exchanged, and will implement such determinations. Eaton Vance will furnish to the Fund investment advice and provide related office facilities and personnel for servicing the investments of the Fund. Eaton Vance will compensate all Trustees and officers of the Fund who are members of the Eaton Vance organization and who render investment services to the Fund, and will also compensate all other Eaton Vance personnel who provide research and investment services to the Fund.
Commodity Futures Trading Commission Registration. The Commodity Futures Trading Commission (“CFTC”) has adopted regulations that subject registered investment companies and advisers to regulation by the CFTC if a fund invests more than a prescribed level of its assets in certain CFTC-regulated instruments (including futures, certain options and swaps agreements) or markets itself as providing investment exposure to such instruments. Pursuant to CFTC Rule 4.5, the Adviser has claimed an exclusion from the definition of “commodity pool operator” under the Commodity Exchange Act with respect to its management of the Fund. Accordingly, neither the Fund nor the Adviser with respect to the operation of the Fund is subject to registration or regulation as a commodity pool operator under the Commodity Exchange Act. Because of its management of other strategies, Eaton Vance is registered with the CFTC as a commodity pool operator. Eaton Vance is also registered as a commodity trading advisor. The CFTC has neither reviewed nor approved the Fund’s investment strategies or this SAI.
Administrative Services. Eaton Vance serves as administrator of the Fund under the Administration Agreement, but currently receives no compensation for providing administrative services to the Fund. Under the Administration Agreement, Eaton Vance has been engaged to administer the Fund’s affairs, subject to the supervision of the Board, and shall furnish office space and all necessary office facilities, equipment and personnel for administering the affairs of the Fund.
Proxy Voting Policy. The Board adopted a proxy voting policy and procedures (the “Fund Policy”), pursuant to which the Board has delegated proxy voting responsibility to the Adviser and adopted the Adviser’s proxy voting policies and procedures (the “Adviser Policies”). An independent proxy voting service has been retained to assist in the voting of Fund proxies through the provision of vote analysis, implementation and recordkeeping and disclosure services. The members of the Board will review the Fund’s proxy voting records from time to time and will review annually the Adviser Policies. For a copy of the Fund Policy and the Adviser Policies, see Appendix B. Pursuant to certain provisions of the 1940 Act and certain exemptive orders relating to funds investing in other funds, a Fund may be required or may elect to vote its interest in another fund in the same proportion as the holders of all other shares of that fund. Information on how the Fund voted proxies relating to portfolio securities during the most recent 12-month period ended June 30 is available (1) without charge, upon request, by calling 1-800-262-1122, (2) on the SEC’s website at http://www.sec.gov and (3) on the Fund’s website at https://eatonvance.com.
Code of Ethics. The Adviser and the Fund have adopted codes of ethics (the “Codes of Ethics”) governing personal securities transactions pursuant to Rule 17j-1 under the 1940 Act. Under the Codes of Ethics, employees of the Adviser may purchase and sell securities (including securities held or eligible for purchase by the Fund) subject to the provisions of the Codes of Ethics and certain employees are also subject to pre-clearance, reporting requirements and/or other procedures.
The Codes of Ethics can be reviewed on the EDGAR Database on the SEC’s Internet site (http://www.sec.gov), or a copy of the Codes of Ethics may be requested by electronic mail at [email protected].
DETERMINATION OF NET ASSET VALUE
The net asset value of the Fund is determined by State Street Bank and Trust Company (“State Street”) (as agent and custodian) by subtracting the liabilities of the Fund from the value of its total assets. The Fund is closed for business and will not issue a net asset value on the following business holidays and any other business day that the New York Stock Exchange is closed: New Year’s Day, Martin Luther King, Jr. Day, Presidents’ Day, Good Friday, Memorial Day, Juneteenth National Independence Day, Independence Day, Labor Day, Thanksgiving Day and Christmas Day. The Fund’s net asset value per share is readily accessible on the Eaton Vance website (www.eatonvance.com).
The Board has approved procedures pursuant to which investments are valued for purposes of determining the Fund’s net asset value. Listed below is a summary of the methods generally used to value investments (some or all of which may be held by the Fund) under the procedures.
• | Equity securities (including common stock, ETFs, closed-end funds, preferred equity securities, exchange-traded notes and other instruments that trade on recognized stock exchanges) are valued at the last sale, official close or, if there are no reported sales, at the mean between the bid and asked price on the primary exchange on which they are traded. |
• | Most debt obligations are valued on the basis of market valuations furnished by a pricing service or at the mean of the bid and asked prices provided by recognized broker/dealers of such securities. The pricing service may use a pricing matrix to determine valuation. |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 19 | SAI dated January 17, 2025 |
• | Short-term instruments with remaining maturities of less than 397 days are valued on the basis of market valuations furnished by a pricing service or based on dealer quotations. |
• | Foreign securities and currencies are valued in U.S. dollars based on foreign currency exchange quotations supplied by a pricing service. |
• | Senior and Junior Loans (as defined in the “Investment Objectives, Investment Strategies, and Risks” section of this SAI) are valued on the basis of prices furnished by a pricing service. The pricing service uses transactions and market quotations from brokers in determining values. |
• | Futures contracts are valued at the settlement or closing price on the primary exchange or board of trade on which they are traded. |
• | Exchange-traded options are valued at the mean of the bid and asked prices. OTC options are valued based on quotations obtained from a pricing service or from a broker (typically the counterparty to the option). |
• | Non-exchange traded derivatives (including swap agreements, forward contracts and equity participation notes) are generally valued on the basis of valuations provided by a pricing service or using quotes provided by a broker/dealer (typically the counterparty) or, for total return swaps, based on market index data. |
• | Precious metals are valued at the New York Composite mean quotation. |
• | Liabilities with a payment or maturity date of 364 days or less are stated at their principal value and longer dated liabilities generally will be carried at their fair value. |
• | Valuations of foreign equity securities and total return swaps and exchange-traded futures contracts on non-North American equity indices are generally based on fair valuation provided by a pricing service. |
Investments which are unable to be valued in accordance with the foregoing methodologies are valued using fair valuation methods by the investment adviser as the Fund’s “valuation designee” pursuant to Rule 2a-5 under the 1940 Act. The investment adviser, as valuation designee, is responsible for establishing fair valuation methodologies and making fair value determinations on behalf of the Fund for those portfolio securities for which no readily available market quotations exist (or for which market quotations are not reliable) and for other Fund investments that are not securities. Such fair valuation methodologies may include consideration of relevant factors, including but not limited to (i) the type of security and the existence of any contractual restrictions on the security’s disposition; (ii) the price and extent of public trading in similar securities of the issuer or of comparable companies or entities; (iii) quotations or relevant information obtained from broker-dealers or other market participants; (iv) information obtained from the issuer, analysts, and/or the appropriate stock exchange (for exchange-traded securities); (v) an analysis of the company’s or entity’s financial statements; (vi) an evaluation of the forces that influence the issuer and the market(s) in which the security is purchased and sold; (vii) any transaction involving the issuer of such securities; and (viii) any other factors deemed relevant by the investment adviser. For purposes of fair valuation, the portfolio managers of one fund managed by the investment adviser that invests in Senior and Junior Loans may not possess the same information about a Senior or Junior Loan as the portfolio managers of another fund managed by the investment adviser. As such, at times the fair value of a Loan determined by certain portfolio managers of the investment adviser may vary from the fair value of the same Loan determined by other portfolio managers.
PORTFOLIO TRADING
Decisions concerning the execution of portfolio security transactions, including the selection of the market and the broker-dealer firm, or other financial intermediary (each an “intermediary”), are made by the Adviser. The Fund is responsible for the expenses associated with its portfolio transactions. The Adviser is also responsible for the execution of transactions for all other accounts managed by it. The Adviser places the portfolio security transactions for execution with one or more intermediaries. The Adviser uses its best efforts to obtain execution of portfolio security transactions at prices that in the Adviser’s judgment are advantageous to the client and at a reasonably competitive spread or (when a disclosed commission is being charged) at reasonably competitive commission rates. In seeking such execution, the Adviser will use its best judgment in evaluating the terms of a transaction, and will give consideration to various relevant factors, which may include, without limitation, the full range and quality of the intermediary’s services, responsiveness of the intermediary to the Adviser, the size and type of the transaction, the nature and character of the market for the security, the confidentiality, speed and certainty of effective execution required for the transaction, the general execution and operational capabilities of the intermediary, the reputation, reliability, experience and financial condition of the intermediary, the value and quality of the services rendered by the intermediary in this and other transactions, and the amount of the spread or commission, if any. In addition, the Adviser may consider the receipt of Research Services (as defined below), provided it does not compromise the Adviser’s obligation to seek best overall execution for the Fund and is otherwise in compliance with applicable law. The Adviser may engage in portfolio transactions with an intermediary that sells shares of Eaton Vance funds, provided such transactions are not directed to that intermediary as compensation for the promotion or sale of such shares.
The investment adviser is an “affiliated person,” as defined in the 1940 Act, of Morgan Stanley and its affiliates, including certain intermediaries (as previously defined). As a result, the Adviser is subject to certain restrictions regarding transactions with Morgan
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 20 | SAI dated January 17, 2025 |
Stanley-affiliated intermediaries, as set forth in the 1940 Act. Under certain circumstances, such restrictions may limit the Adviser’s ability to place portfolio transactions on behalf of the Fund at the desired time or price. Any transaction the Adviser enters into with a Morgan Stanley-affiliated intermediary on behalf of the Fund will be done in compliance with applicable laws, rules, and regulations; will be subject to any restrictions contained in the Fund’s investment advisory agreement; will be subject to the Adviser’s duty to seek best execution; and will comply with any applicable policies and procedures of the Adviser, as described below.
Subject to the overriding objective of obtaining the best execution of orders and applicable rules and regulations, as described above, the Fund may use an affiliated intermediary, including a Morgan Stanley-affiliated intermediary, to effect Fund portfolio transactions, including transactions in futures contracts and options on futures contracts, under procedures adopted by the Board.
In order to use such affiliated intermediaries, the Fund’s Board must approve and periodically review procedures reasonably designed to ensure that commission rates and other remuneration paid to the affiliated intermediaries are fair and reasonable in comparison to those of other intermediaries for comparable transactions involving similar securities being purchased or sold during a comparable time period.
Transactions on stock exchanges and other agency transactions involve the payment of negotiated brokerage commissions. Such commissions vary among different broker-dealer firms, and a particular broker-dealer may charge different commissions according to such factors as the difficulty and size of the transaction and the volume of business done with such broker-dealer. Transactions in foreign securities often involve the payment of brokerage commissions, which may be higher than those in the United States. There is generally no stated commission in the case of securities traded in the OTC markets including transactions in fixed-income securities which are generally purchased and sold on a net basis (i.e., without commission) through intermediaries and banks acting for their own account rather than as brokers. Such intermediaries attempt to profit from such transactions by buying at the bid price and selling at the higher asked price of the market for such obligations, and the difference between the bid and asked price is customarily referred to as the spread. Fixed-income transactions may also be transacted directly with the issuer of the obligations. In an underwritten offering the price paid often includes a disclosed fixed commission or discount retained by the underwriter or dealer. Although spreads or commissions paid on portfolio security transactions will, in the judgment of the Adviser, be reasonable in relation to the value of the services provided, commissions exceeding those which another firm might charge may be paid to intermediaries who were selected to execute transactions on behalf of the Adviser’s clients in part for providing brokerage and research services to the Adviser as permitted by applicable law.
Pursuant to the safe harbor provided in Section 28(e) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended (“Section 28(e)”) and to the extent permitted by other applicable law, a broker or dealer who executes a portfolio transaction on behalf of the Adviser client may receive a commission that is in excess of the amount of commission another broker or dealer would have charged for effecting that transaction if the Adviser determines in good faith that such compensation was reasonable in relation to the value of the brokerage and research services provided. This determination may be made on the basis of either that particular transaction or on the basis of the overall responsibility which the Adviser and its affiliates have for accounts over which they exercise investment discretion. “Research Services” as used herein includes any and all brokerage and research services to the extent permitted by Section 28(e) and other applicable law. Generally, Research Services may include, but are not limited to, such matters as research, analytical and quotation services, data, information and other services products and materials which assist the Adviser in the performance of its investment responsibilities. More specifically, Research Services may include general economic, political, business and market information, industry and company reviews, evaluations of securities and portfolio strategies and transactions, technical analysis of various aspects of the securities markets, recommendations as to the purchase and sale of securities and other portfolio transactions, certain financial, industry and trade publications, certain news and information services, and certain research oriented computer software, data bases and services. Any particular Research Service obtained through a broker-dealer may be used by the Adviser in connection with client accounts other than those accounts which pay commissions to such broker-dealer, to the extent permitted by applicable law. Any such Research Service may be broadly useful and of value to the Adviser in rendering investment advisory services to all or a significant portion of its clients, or may be relevant and useful for the management of only one client’s account or of a few clients’ accounts, or may be useful for the management of merely a segment of certain clients’ accounts, regardless of whether any such account or accounts paid commissions to the broker-dealer through which such Research Service was obtained. The Adviser evaluates the nature and quality of the various Research Services obtained through broker-dealer firms and, to the extent permitted by applicable law, may attempt to allocate sufficient portfolio security transactions to such firms to ensure the continued receipt of Research Services which the Adviser believes are useful or of value to it in rendering investment advisory services to its clients. The Adviser may also receive brokerage and Research Services from underwriters and dealers in fixed-price offerings, when permitted under applicable law.
Research Services provided by (and produced by) broker-dealers that execute portfolio transactions or from affiliates of executing broker-dealers are referred to as “Proprietary Research.” Except for trades executed in jurisdictions where such consideration is not permissible, the Adviser may and does consider the receipt of Proprietary Research Services as a factor in selecting broker-dealers to execute client portfolio transactions, provided it does not compromise the Adviser’s obligation to seek best overall execution. In jurisdictions where permissible, the Adviser also may consider the receipt of Research Services under so called “client commission arrangements” or “commission sharing arrangements” (both referred to as “CCAs”) as a factor in selecting broker-dealers to execute transactions, provided it does not compromise the Adviser’s obligation to seek best overall execution. Under a CCA arrangement, the
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 21 | SAI dated January 17, 2025 |
Adviser may cause client accounts to effect transactions through a broker-dealer and request that the broker-dealer allocate a portion of the commissions paid on those transactions to a pool of commission credits that are paid to other firms that provide Research Services to the Adviser. Under a CCA, the broker-dealer that provides the Research Services need not execute the trade. Participating in CCAs may enable the Adviser to consolidate payments for research using accumulated client commission credits from transactions executed through a particular broker-dealer to periodically pay for Research Services obtained from and provided by other firms, including other broker-dealers that supply Research Services. The Adviser believes that CCAs offer the potential to optimize the execution of trades and the acquisition of a variety of high quality Research Services that the Adviser might not be provided access to absent CCAs. The Adviser may enter into CCA arrangements with a number of broker-dealers and other firms, including certain affiliates of the Adviser. The Adviser will only enter into and utilize CCAs to the extent permitted by Section 28(e) and other applicable law.
The EU’s Markets in Financial Instruments Directive II (“MiFID II”), which became effective January 3, 2018, requires investment advisers regulated under MiFID II to pay for research services separately from trade execution services, either through their own resources or a research payment account funded by a specific charge to a client. Following its withdrawal from the EU, the UK adopted many of the provisions of MiFID II, and investment managers in the UK are required to comply with certain MiFID II equivalent requirements in accordance with rules and guidance issued by the UK Financial Conduct Authority.
Although the Adviser is not directly subject to the provisions of MiFID II, certain of its affiliated advisers are subject to MiFID II or equivalent requirements under the law of the UK, such as Morgan Stanley Investment Management Limited and Eaton Vance Advisers International Ltd (collectively, the “Affiliated Advisers”); accordingly, as applicable, the Adviser makes a reasonable valuation and allocation of the cost of research services as between MiFID II client accounts and other accounts that are able to participate in CCAs, and the Affiliated Advisers will pay for research services received with respect to MiFID II client accounts from their own resources.
The investment companies sponsored by the Adviser or certain of its affiliates also may allocate brokerage commissions to acquire information relating to the performance, fees and expenses of such companies and other investment companies, which information is used by the members of the Board of such companies to fulfill their responsibility to oversee the quality of the services provided to various entities, including the Adviser, to such companies. Such companies may also pay cash for such information.
Securities considered as investments for the Fund may also be appropriate for other investment accounts managed by the Adviser or certain of its affiliates. Whenever decisions are made to buy or sell securities by the Fund and one or more of such other accounts simultaneously, the Adviser will allocate the security transactions (including “new” issues) in a manner which it believes to be equitable under the circumstances. As a result of such allocations, there may be instances where the Fund will not participate in a transaction that is allocated among other accounts. If an aggregated order cannot be filled completely, allocations will generally be made on a pro rata basis. An order may not be allocated on a pro rata basis where, for example: (i) consideration is given to portfolio managers who have been instrumental in developing or negotiating a particular investment; (ii) consideration is given to an account with specialized investment policies that coincide with the particulars of a specific investment; (iii) pro rata allocation would result in odd-lot or de minimis amounts being allocated to a portfolio or other client; or (iv) where the Adviser reasonably determines that departure from a pro rata allocation is advisable. While these aggregation and allocation policies could have a detrimental effect on the price or amount of the securities available to the Fund from time to time, it is the opinion of the members of the Board that the benefits from the Adviser organization outweigh any disadvantage that may arise from exposure to simultaneous transactions.
The following table shows brokerage commissions paid during the three fiscal years ended September 30, 2024, as well as the amount of Fund security transactions for the most recent fiscal year (if any) that were directed to firms that provided some Research Services to the investment adviser or its affiliates (see above), and the commissions paid in connection therewith.
Fiscal Year End |
Brokerage Commission Paid | Amount of Transactions Directed to Firms Providing Research |
Commissions Paid on Transactions Directed to Firms Providing Research |
|||||||||
September 30, 2024 |
$ | 143,705 | $ | 457,861,193 | $ | 106,599 | ||||||
September 30, 2023 |
$ | 262,954 | $ | 654,573,868 | $ | 205,043 | ||||||
September 30, 2022 |
$ | 181,857 | $ | 517,914,481 | $ | 127,146 |
The following table shows brokerage commissions paid to broker-dealers affiliated with Morgan Stanley (“Morgan Stanley affiliated broker-dealers”) during the three fiscal years ended September 30, 2024, as well as the percentage of aggregate brokerage commissions paid to Morgan Stanley affiliated broker-dealers and the percentage of total brokered transactions effected through Morgan Stanley affiliated broker-dealers for the most recent fiscal year.
Brokerage Commissions Paid to Morgan Stanley |
Percentage of Aggregate Brokerage Commissions Paid to Morgan Stanley Affiliated Broker-Dealers |
Percentage of Total Brokered Transactions Effected Through Morgan Stanley Affiliated Broker-Dealer | ||||||
9/30/24 |
9/30/23 |
9/30/22 |
9/30/24 | 9/30/24 | ||||
$0 |
$0 | $0 | 0% | 0% |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 22 | SAI dated January 17, 2025 |
During the fiscal year ended September 30, 2024, the Fund held no securities of its “regular brokers or dealers,” as that term is defined in Rule 10b-1 of the 1940 Act.
TAXES
The Fund has elected and intends to be treated and to qualify each year as a regulated investment company (a “RIC”) under the Code. Accordingly, the Fund intends to satisfy certain requirements relating to sources of its income and diversification of its assets and to distribute substantially all of its net investment income and net capital gains, if any, (after reduction by any available capital loss carryforwards) in accordance with the timing requirements imposed by the Code, so as to maintain its RIC status and to avoid paying any U.S. federal income or excise tax. To the extent it qualifies for treatment as a RIC and satisfies the above-mentioned distribution requirements, the Fund will not be subject to U.S. federal income tax on income paid to its shareholders in the form of dividends.
In order to qualify for the special tax treatment accorded RICs and their shareholders, the Fund must, among other things:
(a) derive at least 90% of its annual gross income from dividends, interest, payments with respect to certain securities loans, and gains from the sale or other disposition of stock, securities, and foreign currencies, or other income (including but not limited to gains from options, futures, or forward contracts) derived with respect to its business of investing in such stock, securities, or currencies, and net income derived from interests in qualified publicly traded partnerships (as defined below);
(b) distribute with respect to each taxable year at least the sum of 90% of its investment company taxable income (as that term is defined in the Code without regard to the deduction for dividends paid—generally, taxable ordinary income and the excess, if any, of net short-term capital gains over net long-term capital losses) and 90% of its net tax-exempt interest income, for such year; and
(c) diversify its holdings so that, at the end of each quarter of the Fund’s taxable year: (i) at least 50% of the value of the Fund’s total assets consists of cash and cash items, U.S. government securities, securities of other RICs, and other securities limited in respect of any one issuer to a value not greater than 5% of the value of the Fund’s total assets and not more than 10% of the outstanding voting securities of such issuer; and (ii) not more than 25% of the value of the Fund’s total assets is invested, including through corporations in which the Fund owns a 20% or more voting stock interest, (x) in the securities (other than those of the U.S. government or other RICs) of any one issuer or of two or more issuers that the Fund controls and that are engaged in the same, similar, or related trades or businesses, or (y) in the securities of one or more qualified publicly traded partnerships (as defined below).
In general, for purposes of the 90% gross income requirement described in paragraph (a) above, income derived from a partnership will be treated as qualifying income only to the extent such income is attributable to items of income of the partnership which would be qualifying income if realized directly by the RIC. However, 100% of the net income derived from an interest in a “qualified publicly traded partnership” (a partnership (x) the interests in which are traded on an established securities market or are readily tradable on a secondary market or the substantial equivalent thereof, and (y) that derives less than 90% of its income from the qualifying income described in paragraph (a) above) will be treated as qualifying income. In addition, although in general the passive loss rules of the Code do not apply to RICs, such rules do apply to a RIC with respect to items attributable to an interest in a qualified publicly traded partnership. If the Fund invests in publicly traded partnerships, it might be required to recognize in its taxable year income in excess of its cash distributions from such publicly traded partnerships during that year. Such income, even if not reported to the Fund by the publicly traded partnerships until after the end of that year, would nevertheless be subject to the RIC income distribution requirements and would be taken into account for purposes of the 4% excise tax described below.
Finally, for purposes of paragraph (c) above, the term “outstanding voting securities of such issuer” will include the equity securities of a qualified publicly traded partnership. For purposes of the diversification test in (c) above, the identification of the issuer (or, in some cases, issuers) of a particular Fund investment can depend on the terms and conditions of that investment. In some cases, identification of the issuer (or issuers) is uncertain under current law, and an adverse determination or future guidance by the Internal Revenue Service (“IRS”) with respect to issuer identification for a particular type of investment may adversely affect the Fund’s ability to meet the diversification test in (c) above.
If the Fund qualifies and is eligible for treatment as a RIC during a taxable year, the Fund will not be subject to U.S. federal income tax on its net investment income (i.e., its investment company taxable income, as that term is defined in the Code, determined without regard to the deduction for dividends paid) and net capital gain (i.e., the excess of its net realized long-term capital gain over its net realized short-term capital loss), if any, that it distributes to its shareholders with respect to such taxable year, provided that it distributes to its shareholders at least the sum of 90% of its net investment income and 90% of its net exempt interest income (if any) for such taxable year.
If the Fund were to fail to meet the income, diversification or distribution test described above, the Fund could in some cases cure such failure, including by paying a Fund-level tax, paying interest, making additional distributions, or disposing of certain assets.
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 23 | SAI dated January 17, 2025 |
If the Fund does not qualify as a RIC for any taxable year, the Fund’s taxable income will be subject to U.S. federal corporate income taxes, and all distributions from earnings and profits, including distributions of net capital gain (if any), will be taxable to the shareholder as ordinary income. Such distributions, may be eligible (i) to be treated as qualified dividend income in the case of individual shareholders and (ii) for the dividends-received deduction (“DRD”) in the case of corporate shareholders, provided, in both cases, the shareholder meets certain holding period and other requirements in respect of the Fund’s shares. In addition, in order to requalify for taxation as a RIC, the Fund may be required to recognize unrealized gains, pay substantial taxes and interest, and make certain distributions.
In order to avoid incurring a nondeductible 4% U.S. federal excise tax obligation, the Code requires that the Fund distribute (or be deemed to have distributed) by December 31 of each calendar year an amount at least equal to the sum of (i) 98% of its ordinary income for such year, (ii) 98.2% of its capital gain net income, generally computed on the basis of the one-year period ending on October 31 (or November 30 or December 31 of that year if the Fund is eligible to elect and so elects) of such year, after reduction by any available capital loss carryforwards, and (iii) 100% of any ordinary income and capital gain net income from the prior year (as previously computed) that were not paid out during such year and on which the Fund paid no U.S. federal income tax.
For U.S. federal income tax purposes, distributions paid out of the Fund’s current or accumulated earnings and profits will, except in the case of distributions of qualified dividend income and capital gain dividends described below, generally be taxable as ordinary income. “Qualified dividend income” received by an individual is generally taxed at the rates applicable to long-term capital gain. In order for a dividend received by Fund shareholders to be qualified dividend income, the Fund must meet holding period and other requirements with respect to the dividend-paying stock in its portfolio and the shareholders must meet holding period and other requirements with respect to the Fund’s shares. A dividend will not be treated as qualified dividend income (at either the Fund or shareholder level) (1) if the dividend is received with respect to any share of stock held for fewer than 61 days during the 121-day period beginning on the date which is 60 days before the date on which such share becomes ex-dividend with respect to such dividend (or, in the case of certain preferred stock, 91 days during the 181-day period beginning 90 days before such date), (2) to the extent that the recipient is under an obligation (whether pursuant to a short sale or otherwise) to make related payments with respect to positions in substantially similar or related property, (3) if the recipient elects to have the dividend income treated as investment income for purposes of the limitation on deductibility of investment interest, or (4) if the dividend is received from a foreign corporation that is (a) not eligible for the benefits of a comprehensive income tax treaty with the U.S. (with the exception of dividends paid on stock of such a foreign corporation readily tradable on an established securities market in the U.S.) or (b) treated as a passive foreign investment company (“PFIC”). Payments in lieu of dividends, such as payments pursuant to securities lending arrangements, also do not qualify to be treated as qualified dividend income. In general, distributions of investment income properly reported by the Fund as derived from qualified dividend income will be treated as qualified dividend income by a shareholder taxed as an individual provided the shareholder meets the holding period and other requirements described above with respect to the Fund’s shares.
If the aggregate qualified dividend income received by the Fund during any taxable year is 95% or more of its gross income (excluding net long-term capital gain over net short-term capital loss), then 100% of the Fund’s dividends (other than dividends properly designated as capital gain dividends) will be eligible to be treated as qualified dividend income.
A portion of distributions made by the Fund which are derived from dividends from U.S. corporations may qualify for the DRD for corporations. The DRD is reduced to the extent the Fund shares with respect to which the dividends are received are treated as debt-financed under the Code and is eliminated if the shares are deemed to have been held for less than a minimum period, generally more than 45 days (more than 90 days in the case of certain preferred stock) during the 91-day period beginning 45 days before the ex-dividend date (during the 181-day period beginning 90 days before such date in the case of certain preferred stock) or if the recipient is under an obligation (whether pursuant to a short sale or otherwise) to make related payments with respect to positions in substantially similar or related property. Receipt of certain distributions qualifying for the DRD may result in a reduction of the tax basis of the corporate shareholder’s shares. Payments in lieu of dividends, such as payments pursuant to securities lending arrangements, also do not qualify for the DRD.
For U.S. federal income tax purposes, net capital losses incurred by the Fund in a particular taxable year can be carried forward to offset net capital gains in any subsequent year until such loss carryforwards have been fully used, and such capital losses carried forward will retain their character as either short-term or long-term capital losses. To the extent subsequent net capital gains are offset by such losses, they would not result in U.S. federal income tax liability to the Fund and would not be distributed as such to shareholders.
Distributions of net capital gain, if any, designated as capital gains dividends are taxable to a shareholder as long-term capital gains, regardless of how long the shareholder has held Fund shares. The IRS and the Department of the Treasury have issued regulations that impose special rules in respect of capital gain dividends received through partnership interests constituting “applicable partnership interests” under Section 1061 of the Code. A distribution of an amount in excess of the Fund’s current and accumulated earnings and profits will be treated by a shareholder as a return of capital which is applied against and reduces the shareholder’s basis in his or her shares. To the extent that the amount of any such distribution exceeds the shareholder’s basis in his or her shares, the excess will be treated by the shareholder as gain from a sale or exchange of the shares. Distributions of gains from the sale of investments that the Fund owned for one year or less will generally be taxable as ordinary income.
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 24 | SAI dated January 17, 2025 |
The Fund may elect to retain its net capital gain or a portion thereof for investment and be taxed at corporate rates on the amount retained. In such case, it may designate the retained amount as undistributed capital gains in a notice to its shareholders who will be treated as if each received a distribution of their pro rata share of such gain, with the result that each shareholder will (i) be required to report their pro rata share of such gain on their tax return as long-term capital gain, (ii) receive a refundable tax credit for their pro rata share of tax paid by the Fund on the gain and claim a refund on a properly and timely-filed U.S. tax return to the extent such credit exceeds the shareholder’s U.S. federal income tax liabilities and (iii) increase the tax basis of their shares by an amount equal to the deemed distribution less the tax credit. The Fund is not required to, and there can be no assurance the Fund will, make this designation if it retains all or a portion of its net capital gain in a taxable year.
Distributions are taxable as described herein whether shareholders receive them in cash or in additional shares of the Fund. Shareholders receiving distributions in the form of additional shares pursuant to a dividend reinvestment plan will be treated for U.S. federal income tax purposes as receiving a distribution in an amount equal to either (i) if the shares are trading below net asset value, the amount of cash allocated to the shareholder for the purchase of shares on its behalf in the open market, or (ii) if the shares are trading at or above net asset value, generally the fair market value of the new shares issued to the shareholder. The Fund will inform shareholders of the source and tax status of all distributions promptly after the close of each calendar year.
The benefits of the reduced tax rates applicable to long-term capital gains and qualified dividend income may be impacted by the application of the U.S. federal alternative minimum tax to individual shareholders.
From time to time, the Fund may make a tender offer for its shares. Shareholders who tender all shares held, or considered to be held, by them will generally be treated as having sold their shares and generally will realize a capital gain or loss. If a shareholder tenders fewer than all of its shares, such shareholder may be treated as having received a distribution under Section 301 of the Code (“Section 301 Distribution”) unless the redemption is treated as being either (i) “substantially disproportionate” with respect to such shareholder or (ii) otherwise “not essentially equivalent to a dividend” under the relevant rules of the Code. A Section 301 Distribution is not treated as a sale or exchange giving rise to a capital gain or loss, but rather is treated as a dividend to the extent supported by the Fund’s current and accumulated earnings and profits, with the excess treated as a return of capital reducing the shareholder’s tax basis in Fund shares, and thereafter as capital gain. Where a redeeming shareholder is treated as receiving a dividend, there is a risk that non-tendering shareholders whose interests in the Fund increase as a result of such tender may be treated as having received a taxable distribution from the Fund. The extent of such risk will vary depending upon the particular circumstances of the tender offer, in particular whether such offer is a single and isolated event or is part of a plan for periodically redeeming the shares of the Fund; if isolated, any such risk is likely remote.
The net investment income of certain U.S. individuals, estates and trusts is subject to a 3.8% Medicare contribution tax. For individuals, the tax is on the lesser of “net investment income” and the excess of modified adjusted gross income over certain threshold amounts. Net investment income includes, among other things, interest, dividends, and capital gains derived from passive activities and trading in securities or commodities. Net investment income is reduced by deductions “properly allocable” to this income.
The taxation of equity options that the Fund expects to write that do not qualify as “Section 1256 Contracts” (as defined below) are governed by Code Section 1234. Pursuant to Code Section 1234, the premium received by the Fund for selling a call option is not included in income at the time of receipt. If an option written by the Fund expires unexercised, the premium is short-term capital gain to the Fund. If the Fund enters into a closing transaction, the difference between the amount paid to close out its position and the premium received for writing the option is short-term capital gain or loss. If a call option written by the Fund is exercised, thereby requiring the Fund to sell the underlying security, the premium will increase the amount realized upon the sale of the security and any resulting gain or loss will be long-term or short-term, depending upon the holding period of the security. If securities are purchased by the Fund pursuant to the exercise of a put option written by it, the Fund generally will subtract the premium received for purposes of computing its cost basis in the securities purchased. With respect to a put or call option that is purchased by the Fund, if the option is sold, any resulting gain or loss will be a capital gain or loss, and will be short-term or long-term, depending upon the holding period for the option. If the option expires, the resulting loss is a capital loss and is short-term or long-term, depending upon the holding period for the option. If the option is exercised, the cost of the option, in the case of a call option, is added to the basis of the purchased security and, in the case of a put option, reduces the amount realized on the underlying security in determining gain or loss. Because the Fund does not have control over the exercise of the call options it writes, such exercise or other required sales of the underlying securities may cause the Fund to realize capital gains or losses at inopportune times.
The Fund’s investment in zero coupon, payment in kind and certain other securities may cause it to realize income prior to the receipt of cash payments with respect to these securities. Such income will be accrued daily by the Fund and, in order to avoid a tax payable by the Fund, the Fund may be required to liquidate securities that it might otherwise have continued to hold, including at a time when it may not be advantageous to do so, in order to generate cash so that the Fund may make required distributions to its shareholders.
Some debt obligations with a fixed maturity date of more than one year from the date of issuance that are acquired by the Fund in the secondary market may be treated as having “market discount.” Very generally, market discount is the excess of the stated redemption price of a debt obligation (or in the case of an obligation issued with original issue discount (“OID”), its “revised issue price”) over the
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 25 | SAI dated January 17, 2025 |
purchase price of such obligation. Generally, any gain recognized on the disposition of, and any partial payment of principal on, a debt security having market discount is treated as ordinary income to the extent the gain, or principal payment, does not exceed the “accrued market discount” on such debt security. Alternatively, the Fund may elect to accrue market discount currently, in which case the Fund will be required to include the accrued market discount in the Fund’s income (as ordinary income) and thus distribute it over the term of the debt security, even though payment of that amount is not received until a later time, upon partial or full repayment or disposition of the debt security. The rate at which the market discount accrues, and thus is included in the Fund’s income, will depend upon which of the permitted accrual methods the Fund elects.
Investments in debt obligations that are at risk of or in default present special tax issues for the Fund. Tax rules are not entirely clear on the treatment of such debt obligations, including as to whether or to what extent the Fund should recognize market discount on such a debt obligation, when the Fund may cease to accrue interest, OID or market discount, when and to what extent the Fund may take deductions for bad debts or worthless securities and how the Fund should allocate payments received on obligations in default between principal and income. These and other related issues will be addressed by the Fund when, as and if they invest in such securities, in order to seek to ensure that they distribute sufficient income to preserve their status as RICs and do not become subject to U.S. federal income or excise tax.
The Fund’s transactions in futures contracts and options will be subject to special provisions of the Code that, among other things, may affect the character of gains and losses realized by the Fund (i.e., may affect whether gains or losses are ordinary or capital, or short-term or long-term), may accelerate recognition of income to the Fund and may defer Fund losses. These rules could, therefore, affect the character, amount and timing of distributions to shareholders. These provisions also (a) may require the Fund to mark-to-market certain types of the positions in its portfolio (i.e., treat them as if they were closed out), and (b) may cause the Fund to recognize income without receiving cash with which to make distributions in amounts necessary to satisfy the 90% distribution requirement for qualifying to be taxed as a RIC and the 98% and 98.2% distribution requirements for avoiding U.S. federal excise taxes.
In particular, the Fund expects to write call options with respect to certain securities held by the Fund. Depending on whether such options are exercised or lapse, or whether the securities or options are sold, the existence of these options will affect the amount and timing of the recognition of income and whether the income qualifies as long-term capital gain.
Further, certain of the Fund’s investment practices, such as its transactions in options, are subject to special and complex U.S. federal income tax provisions that may, among other things, (i) convert dividends that would otherwise constitute qualified dividend income into ordinary income taxed at the higher rate applicable to ordinary income, (ii) treat dividends that would otherwise be eligible for the corporate DRD as ineligible for such treatment, (iii) disallow, suspend or otherwise limit the allowance of certain losses or deductions, (iv) convert long-term capital gain into short-term capital gain or ordinary income, (v) convert an ordinary loss or deduction into a capital loss (the deductibility of which is more limited), (vi) cause the Fund to recognize income or gain without a corresponding receipt of cash, (vii) adversely affect the time as to when a purchase or sale of stock or securities is deemed to occur, (viii) adversely alter the characterization of certain complex financial transactions, and (ix) produce income that will not constitute qualifying income for purposes of the 90% annual gross income requirement described above.
The Fund’s options activities may include transactions constituting straddles for U.S. federal income tax purposes, that is, that trigger the U.S. federal income tax straddle rules contained primarily in Section 1092 of the Code. Such straddles include, for example, positions in a particular security, or an index of securities, and one or more options that offset the former position, including options that are “covered” by the Fund’s long position in the subject security. Very generally, where applicable, Code Section 1092 requires (i) that losses be deferred on positions deemed to be offsetting positions with respect to “substantially similar or related property,” to the extent of unrealized gain in the latter, and (ii) that the holding period of such a straddle position that has not already been held for the long-term holding period be terminated and begin anew once the position is no longer part of a straddle. Options on single stocks that are not “deep in the money” may constitute qualified covered calls, which generally are not subject to the straddle rules; the holding period on stock underlying qualified covered calls that are “in the money” although not “deep in the money” will be suspended during the period that such calls are outstanding. These straddle rules and the rules governing qualified covered calls could cause gains that would otherwise constitute long-term capital gains to be treated as short-term capital gains, and distributions that would otherwise constitute “qualified dividend income” or qualify for the DRD to fail to satisfy the holding period requirements and therefore to be taxed as ordinary income or to fail to qualify for the DRD as the case may be.
The tax treatment of certain positions entered into by the Fund (including regulated futures contracts, certain foreign currency positions and certain listed non-equity options) will be governed by Section 1256 of the Code (“Section 1256 Contracts”). Gains or losses on Section 1256 Contracts generally are considered 60% long-term and 40% short-term capital gains or losses (“60/40”), although certain foreign currency gains and losses from such Contracts may be treated as ordinary in character. Also, Section 1256 Contracts held by the Fund at the end of each taxable year (and, for purposes of the 4% excise tax, on certain other dates as prescribed under the Code) are “marked to market” with the result that unrealized gains or losses are treated as though they were realized and the resulting gain or loss is treated as ordinary or 60/40 gain or loss, as applicable.
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 26 | SAI dated January 17, 2025 |
Any investment by the Fund in equity securities of REITs may result in the Fund’s receipt of cash in excess of the REIT’s earnings; if the Fund distributes these amounts, these distributions could constitute a return of capital to Fund shareholders for U.S. federal income tax purposes. Investments in REIT equity securities also may require the Fund to accrue and distribute income not yet received. To generate sufficient cash to make the requisite distributions, the Fund may be required to sell securities in its portfolio (including when it is not advantageous to do so) that it otherwise would have continued to hold. Dividends received by the Fund from a REIT will not qualify for the corporate dividends-received deduction and generally will not constitute qualified dividend income.
Distributions by a Fund to its shareholders that the Fund properly reports as “section 199A dividends,” as defined and subject to certain conditions described below, are treated as qualified REIT dividends in the hands of non-corporate shareholders. Non-corporate shareholders are permitted a U.S. federal income tax deduction equal to 20% of qualified REIT dividends received by them, subject to certain limitations. Currently, eligible non-corporate shareholders can claim the deduction for tax years beginning after December 31, 2017 and ending on or before December 31, 2025. Very generally, a “section 199A dividend” is any dividend or portion thereof that is attributable to certain dividends received by a RIC from REITs, to the extent such dividends are properly reported as such by the RIC in a written notice to its shareholders. A section 199A dividend is treated as a qualified REIT dividend only if the shareholder receiving such dividend holds the dividend-paying RIC shares for at least 46 days of the 91-day period beginning 45 days before the shares become ex-dividend, and is not under an obligation to make related payments with respect to a position in substantially similar or related property. A Fund is permitted to report such part of its dividends as section 199A dividends as are eligible, but is not required to do so.
Shareholders who sell or otherwise dispose of their Fund shares in a taxable transaction will generally recognize gain or loss in an amount equal to the difference between the shareholder’s adjusted tax basis in the shares sold and the amount received. If the shares are held as a capital asset, the gain or loss will be a capital gain or loss and will be long-term or short-term depending on the shareholder’s holding period in the shares sold. Any loss realized upon the sale or other disposition of Fund shares with a holding period of six months or less will be treated as a long-term capital loss to the extent of any capital gain dividends received with respect to such shares. In addition, all or a portion of a loss realized on a sale or other disposition of Fund shares may be disallowed under “wash sale” rules to the extent the shareholder acquires other shares of the same Fund (whether through the reinvestment of distributions or otherwise) within a period of 61 days beginning 30 days before and ending 30 days after the date of disposition of the shares. Any disallowed loss will result in an adjustment to the shareholder’s tax basis in some or all of the other shares acquired.
Sales charges paid upon a purchase of shares cannot be taken into account for purposes of determining gain or loss on a sale of the shares before the 91st day after their purchase to the extent a sales charge is reduced or eliminated in a subsequent acquisition of shares of the Fund (or of another fund), during the period beginning on the date of such sale and ending on January 31 of the calendar year following the calendar year in which such sale was made, pursuant to the reinvestment or exchange privilege. Any disregarded amounts will result in an adjustment to the shareholder’s tax basis in some or all of any other shares acquired.
Dividends and distributions on the Fund’s shares are generally subject to U.S. federal income tax as described herein to the extent they do not exceed the Fund’s realized income and gains, even though such dividends and distributions may economically represent a return of a particular shareholder’s investment. Such distributions are likely to occur in respect of shares purchased at a time when the Fund’s net asset value reflects gains that are either unrealized, or realized but not distributed. Such realized gains may be required to be distributed even when the Fund’s net asset value also reflects unrealized losses. Certain distributions declared in October, November or December and paid in the following January will be taxed to shareholders as if received on December 31 of the year in which they were declared. In addition, certain other distributions made after the close of a taxable year of the Fund may be “spilled back” and treated as paid by the Fund (except for purposes of the non-deductible 4% federal excise tax) during such taxable year. In such case, shareholders will be treated as having received such dividends in the taxable year in which the distributions were actually made.
The Fund will inform shareholders of the source and tax status of all distributions promptly after the close of each calendar year.
Dividends and interest received, and gains realized, by the Fund on foreign securities may be subject to income, withholding or other taxes imposed by foreign countries and U.S. possessions (collectively “foreign taxes”) that would reduce the return on its securities. Tax conventions between certain countries and the United States, however, may reduce or eliminate foreign taxes. Shareholders generally will not be entitled to claim a credit or deduction with respect to foreign taxes paid by the Fund. In addition, investments in foreign securities or foreign currencies may increase or accelerate the Fund’s recognition of ordinary income and may affect the timing or amount of the Fund’s distributions.
Equity investments by the Fund in certain PFICs could potentially subject the Fund to U.S. federal income tax (including interest charges) on distributions received from the PFIC or on proceeds received from the disposition of shares in the PFIC. This tax cannot be eliminated by making distributions to Fund shareholders. However, the Fund may elect to avoid the imposition of that tax. For example, the Fund may elect to treat a PFIC as a “qualified electing fund” (i.e., make a “QEF election”), in which case the Fund will be required to include its share of the PFIC’s income and net capital gains annually, regardless of whether it receives any distribution from the PFIC. The Fund also may make an election to mark the gains (and to a limited extent losses) in such holdings “to the market” as though it had sold (and, solely for purposes of this mark-to-market election, repurchased) its holdings in those PFICs on
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 27 | SAI dated January 17, 2025 |
the last day of the Fund’s taxable year. Such gains and losses are treated as ordinary income and loss. The QEF and mark-to-market elections may accelerate the recognition of income (without the receipt of cash) and increase the amount required to be distributed by the Fund to avoid taxation. Making either of these elections therefore may require the Fund to liquidate other investments (including when it is not advantageous to do so) to meet its distribution requirement, which also may accelerate the recognition of gain and affect the Fund’s total return. Dividends paid by PFICs will not be eligible to be treated as “qualified dividend income.” Because it is not always possible to identify a foreign corporation as a PFIC, the Fund may incur the tax and interest charges described above in some instances.
Under Section 988 of the Code, gains or losses attributable to fluctuations in exchange rates between the time the Fund accrues income or receivables or expenses or other liabilities denominated in a foreign currency and the time the Fund actually collects such income or receivables or pays such liabilities are generally treated as ordinary income or loss. Similarly, gains or losses on foreign currency forward contracts and the disposition of debt securities denominated in a foreign currency, to the extent attributable to fluctuations in exchange rates between the acquisition and disposition dates, are also treated as ordinary income or loss.
Amounts paid by the Fund to individuals and certain other shareholders who have not provided the Fund with their correct taxpayer identification number and certain certifications required by the IRS as well as shareholders with respect to whom the Fund has received certain information from the IRS or a broker may be subject to “backup” withholding of U.S. federal income tax arising from the Fund’s taxable dividends and other distributions as well as the gross proceeds of sales of shares. Backup withholding is not an additional tax. Any amounts withheld under the backup withholding rules from payments made to a shareholder may be refunded or credited against such shareholder’s U.S. federal income tax liability, if any, provided that the required information is timely furnished to the IRS.
Distributions by the Fund to shareholders that are not “United States persons” within the meaning of the Code (“foreign shareholders”) properly reported by the Fund as (1) capital gain dividends, (2) short-term capital gain dividends, as defined below, and (3) interest-related dividends, as defined below and, in each case, subject to certain conditions described below, generally are not subject to withholding of U.S. federal income tax.
In general, the Code defines (1) “short-term capital gain dividends” as distributions of net short-term capital gains in excess of net long-term capital losses and (2) “interest-related dividends” as distributions from U.S. source interest income of types similar to those not subject to U.S. federal income tax if earned directly by an individual foreign shareholder, in each case to the extent such distributions are properly reported as such by the Fund in a written notice to shareholders. The exceptions to withholding for capital gain dividends and short-term capital gain dividends do not apply to (A) distributions to an individual foreign shareholder who is present in the United States for a period or periods aggregating 183 days or more during the year of the distribution and (B) distributions attributable to gain that is treated as effectively connected with the conduct by the foreign shareholder of a trade or business within the United States under special rules regarding the disposition of U.S. real property interests. The exception to withholding for interest-related dividends does not apply to distributions to a foreign shareholder (A) that has not provided a satisfactory statement that the beneficial owner is not a U.S. person, (B) to the extent that the dividend is attributable to certain interest on an obligation if the foreign shareholder is the issuer or is a 10% shareholder of the issuer, (C) that is within certain foreign countries that have inadequate information exchange with the United States, or (D) to the extent the dividend is attributable to interest paid by a person that is a related person of the foreign shareholder and the foreign shareholder is a controlled foreign corporation. The Fund is permitted to report such part of its dividends as interest-related and/or short-term capital gain dividends as are eligible, but is not required to do so. In the case of shares held through an intermediary, the intermediary may withhold even if the Fund reports all or a portion of a payment as an interest-related or short-term capital gain dividend to shareholders.
Foreign shareholders with respect to whom income from the Fund is effectively connected with a trade or business conducted by the foreign shareholder within the United States will in general be subject to U.S. federal income tax on the income derived from the Fund at the graduated rates applicable to U.S. citizens, residents or domestic corporations, whether such income is received in cash or reinvested in shares of the Fund and, in the case of a foreign corporation, may also be subject to a branch profits tax. If a foreign shareholder is eligible for the benefits of a tax treaty, any effectively connected income or gain will generally be subject to U.S. federal income tax on a net basis only if it is also attributable to a permanent establishment maintained by the shareholder in the United States. More generally, foreign shareholders who are residents in a country with an income tax treaty with the United States may obtain different tax results than those described herein, and are urged to consult their tax advisors. Distributions by the Fund to foreign shareholders other than capital gain dividends, short-term capital gain dividends, and interest-related dividends (e.g., dividends attributable to dividend and foreign-source interest income or to short-term capital gains or U.S. source interest income to which the exception from withholding described above does not apply) are generally subject to withholding of U.S. federal income tax at a rate of 30% (or lower applicable treaty rate).
A foreign shareholder is not, in general, subject to U.S. federal income tax on gains (and is not allowed a deduction for losses) realized on the sale of shares of the Fund unless (i) such gain is effectively connected with the conduct by the foreign shareholder of a trade or business within the United States, (ii) in the case of a foreign shareholder that is an individual, the shareholder is present in the United States for a period or periods aggregating 183 days or more during the year of the sale and certain other conditions are met, or (iii) the special rules relating to gain attributable to the sale or exchange of “U.S. real property interests” apply to the foreign shareholder’s sale of shares of the Fund.
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In order to qualify for any exemptions from withholding described above or for lower withholding tax rates under income tax treaties, or to establish an exemption from backup withholding, a foreign shareholder must comply with special certification and filing requirements relating to its non-U.S. status (including, in general, furnishing an IRS Form W-8BEN or W-8BEN-E or substitute form). Foreign shareholders should consult their tax advisors in this regard.
Special rules (including withholding and reporting requirements) apply to foreign partnerships and those holding Fund shares through foreign partnerships. Additional considerations may apply to foreign trusts and estates. Investors holding Fund shares through foreign entities should consult their tax advisors about their particular situation.
Code Sections 1471 through 1474 and the U.S. Treasury Regulations and IRS guidance issued thereunder (collectively, “FATCA”) generally require a Fund to obtain information sufficient to identify the status of each of its shareholders under FATCA or under an applicable intergovernmental agreement (an “IGA”) between the United States and a foreign government. If a shareholder of the Fund fails to provide the requested information or otherwise fails to comply with FATCA or an IGA, the Fund may be required to withhold under FATCA at a rate of 30% with respect to that shareholder on ordinary dividends it pays. The IRS and the Department of the Treasury have issued proposed regulations providing that these withholding rules will not apply to the gross proceeds of share redemptions or capital gain dividends the Fund pays. If a payment by the Fund is subject to withholding under FATCA, the Fund is required to withhold even if such payment would otherwise be exempt from withholding under the rules applicable to foreign shareholders described above (e.g., short-term capital gain dividends and interest-related dividends). Shareholders should consult their own tax advisors regarding the possible implications of these requirements on their investment in the Fund.
If a shareholder realizes a loss on disposition of the Fund’s shares in any single tax year of $2 million or more for an individual shareholder or $10 million or more for a corporate shareholder or, in any combination of tax years, $4 million or more for an individual shareholder or $20 million or more for a corporate shareholder, the shareholder must file with the IRS a disclosure statement on IRS Form 8886. Direct shareholders of portfolio securities are in many cases excepted from this reporting requirement, but under current guidance, shareholders of a RIC are not excepted.
The foregoing briefly summarizes some of the important U.S. federal income tax consequences to shareholders of investing in shares and reflects the U.S. federal tax law as of the date of this SAI, but it does not address all special tax rules applicable to certain types of investors, such as corporate and foreign investors. Unless otherwise noted, this discussion assumes that an investor is a U.S. shareholder and holds shares as a capital asset. This discussion is based upon present provisions of the Code, the regulations promulgated thereunder, and judicial and administrative ruling authorities, all of which are subject to change or differing interpretations by the courts or the IRS retroactively or prospectively. Investors should consult their tax advisors regarding other U.S. federal, state or local tax or non-U.S. tax considerations that may be applicable to their particular circumstances, as well as any proposed tax law changes.
OTHER INFORMATION
The Fund is an organization of the type commonly known as a “Massachusetts business trust.” Under Massachusetts law, shareholders of such a trust may, in certain circumstances, be held personally liable as partners for the obligations of the trust. The Declaration of Trust contains an express disclaimer of shareholder liability in connection with Fund property or the acts, obligations or affairs of the Fund. The Declaration of Trust, in coordination with the Fund’s Amended and Restated By-laws, also provides for indemnification out of Fund property of any shareholder held personally liable for the claims and liabilities to which a shareholder may become subject by reason of being or having been a shareholder. Thus, the risk of a shareholder incurring financial loss on account of shareholder liability is limited to circumstances in which the Fund itself is unable to meet its obligations. The Fund has been advised by its counsel that the risk of any shareholder incurring any liability for the obligations of the Fund is remote.
The Declaration of Trust provides that the Trustees will not be liable for errors of judgment or mistakes of fact or law; but nothing in the Declaration of Trust protects a Trustee against any liability to the Fund or its shareholders to which he or she would otherwise be subject by reason of willful misfeasance, bad faith, gross negligence, or reckless disregard of the duties involved in the conduct of his or her office. Voting rights are not cumulative, which means that the holders of more than 50% of the shares voting for the election of Trustees can elect 100% of the Trustees and, in such event, the holders of the remaining less than 50% of the shares voting on the matter will not be able to elect any Trustees.
The Declaration of Trust provides that no person shall serve as a Trustee if shareholders holding two-thirds of the outstanding shares have removed him from that office either by a written declaration filed with the Fund’s custodian or by votes cast at a meeting called for that purpose. The Declaration of Trust further provides that the Trustees of the Fund shall promptly call a meeting of the shareholders for the purpose of voting upon a question of removal of any such Trustee or Trustees when requested in writing to do so by the record holders of not less than 10 per centum of the outstanding shares.
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The Fund’s Prospectus, any related Prospectus Supplement and this SAI do not contain all of the information set forth in the Registration Statement that the Fund has filed with the SEC. The complete Registration Statement may be obtained from the SEC upon payment of the fee prescribed by its Rules and Regulations.
CUSTODIAN
State Street Bank and Trust Company (“State Street”), One Congress Street, Boston, Massachusetts 02114-2016, is the custodian of the Fund and will maintain custody of the securities and cash of the Fund. State Street maintains the Fund’s general ledger and computes net asset value per share at least weekly. State Street also attends to details in connection with the sale, exchange, substitution, transfer and other dealings with the Fund’s investments, and receives and disburses all funds. State Street also assists in preparation of shareholder reports and the electronic filing of such reports with the SEC.
INDEPENDENT REGISTERED PUBLIC ACCOUNTING FIRM
Deloitte & Touche LLP (“Deloitte”), 115 Federal Street, Suite 15, Boston, Massachusetts 02110-1894, independent registered public accounting firm, audits the Fund’s financial statements. Deloitte and/or its affiliates provide other audit and related services to the Fund.
CONTROL PERSONS AND PRINCIPAL HOLDERS OF SECURITIES
As of December 31, 2024, the officers and Trustees of the Fund as a group owned less than 1% of the outstanding shares of the Fund.
To the knowledge of the Fund, no shareholders owned 5% or more of the outstanding Common Shares of the Fund as of December 31, 2024. Owners of 25% or more of common shares of a fund are presumed to be a control person of such fund.
POTENTIAL CONFLICTS OF INTEREST
As a diversified global financial services firm, Morgan Stanley engages in a broad spectrum of activities, including financial advisory services, investment management activities, lending, commercial banking, sponsoring and managing private investment funds, engaging in broker-dealer transactions and principal securities, commodities and foreign exchange transactions, research publication and other activities. In the ordinary course of its business, Morgan Stanley is a full-service investment banking and financial services firm and therefore engages in activities where Morgan Stanley’s interests or the interests of its clients may conflict with the interests of the Fund or Portfolio, if applicable, (collectively for the purposes of this section, “Fund” or “Funds”). Morgan Stanley advises clients and sponsors, manages or advises other investment funds and investment programs, accounts and businesses (collectively, together with the Morgan Stanley funds, any new or successor funds, programs, accounts or businesses, (other than funds, programs, accounts or businesses sponsored, managed, or advised by former direct or indirect subsidiaries of Eaton Vance Corp. (“Eaton Vance Investment Accounts”)), the “MS Investment Accounts,” and, together with the Eaton Vance Investment Accounts, the ‘‘Affiliated Investment Accounts’’) with a wide variety of investment objectives that in some instances may overlap or conflict with the Fund’s investment objectives and present conflicts of interest. In addition, Morgan Stanley or the investment adviser may also from time to time create new or successor Affiliated Investment Accounts that may compete with the Fund and present similar conflicts of interest. The discussion below enumerates certain actual, apparent and potential conflicts of interest. There is no assurance that conflicts of interest will be resolved in favor of Fund shareholders and, in fact, they may not be. Conflicts of interest not described below may also exist. The discussions below with respect to actual, apparent and potential conflicts of interest also may be applicable to or arise from the MS Investment Accounts whether or not specifically identified.
Material Non-Public and Other Information. It is expected that confidential or material non-public information regarding an investment or potential investment opportunity may become available to the investment adviser. If such information becomes available, the investment adviser may be precluded (including by applicable law or internal policies or procedures) from pursuing an investment or disposition opportunity with respect to such investment or investment opportunity.
The investment adviser may also from time to time be subject to contractual ‘‘stand-still’’ obligations and/or confidentiality obligations that may restrict its ability to trade in certain investments on the Fund’s behalf. In addition, the investment adviser may be precluded from disclosing such information to an investment team, even in circumstances in which the information would be beneficial if disclosed. Therefore, the investment team may not be provided access to material non-public information in the possession of Morgan Stanley that might be relevant to an investment decision to be made on behalf of the Fund, and the investment team may initiate a transaction or sell an investment that, if such information had been known to it, may not have been undertaken. In addition, certain members of the investment team may be recused from certain investment-related discussions so that such members do not receive information that would limit their ability to perform functions of their employment with the investment adviser or its affiliates unrelated to that of the Fund. Furthermore, access to certain parts of Morgan Stanley may be subject to third party confidentiality obligations and to information barriers established by Morgan Stanley in order to manage potential conflicts of interest and regulatory restrictions, including without limitation joint transaction restrictions pursuant to the 1940 Act. Accordingly, the investment adviser’s ability to source investments from other business units within Morgan Stanley may be limited and there can be no assurance that the investment adviser will be able to source any investments from any one or more parts of the Morgan Stanley network.
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The investment adviser may restrict its investment decisions and activities on behalf of the Fund in various circumstances, including because of applicable regulatory requirements or information held by the investment adviser or Morgan Stanley. The investment adviser might not engage in transactions or other activities for, or enforce certain rights in favor of, the Fund due to Morgan Stanley’s activities outside the Funds. In instances where trading of an investment is restricted, the investment adviser may not be able to purchase or sell such investment on behalf of the Fund, resulting in the Fund’s inability to participate in certain desirable transactions. This inability to buy or sell an investment could have an adverse effect on the Fund’s portfolio due to, among other things, changes in an investment’s value during the period its trading is restricted. Also, in situations where the investment adviser is required to aggregate its positions with those of other Morgan Stanley business units for position limit calculations, the investment adviser may have to refrain from making investments due to the positions held by other Morgan Stanley business units or their clients. There may be other situations where the investment adviser refrains from making an investment due to additional disclosure obligations, regulatory requirements, policies, and reputational risk, or the investment adviser may limit purchases or sales of securities in respect of which Morgan Stanley is engaged in an underwriting or other distribution capacity.
Morgan Stanley has established certain information barriers and other policies to address the sharing of information between different businesses within Morgan Stanley. As a result of information barriers, the investment adviser generally will not have access, or will have limited access, to certain information and personnel in other areas of Morgan Stanley relating to business transactions for clients (including transactions in investing, banking, prime brokerage and certain other areas), and generally will not manage the Funds with the benefit of the information held by such other areas. Morgan Stanley, due to its access to and knowledge of funds, markets and securities based on its prime brokerage and other businesses, may make decisions based on information or take (or refrain from taking) actions with respect to interests in investments of the kind held (directly or indirectly) by the Funds in a manner that may be adverse to the Funds, and will not have any obligation or other duty to share information with the investment adviser.
In limited circumstances, however, including for purposes of managing business and reputational risk, and subject to policies and procedures and any applicable regulations, Morgan Stanley personnel, including personnel of the investment adviser, on one side of an information barrier may have access to information and personnel on the other side of the information barrier through “wall crossings.” The investment adviser faces conflicts of interest in determining whether to engage in such wall crossings. Information obtained in connection with such wall crossings may limit or restrict the ability of the investment adviser to engage in or otherwise effect transactions on behalf of the Funds (including purchasing or selling securities that the investment adviser may otherwise have purchased or sold for the Fund in the absence of a wall crossing). In managing conflicts of interest that arise because of the foregoing, the investment adviser generally will be subject to fiduciary requirements. The investment adviser may also implement internal information barriers or ethical walls, and the conflicts described herein with respect to information barriers and otherwise with respect to Morgan Stanley and the investment adviser will also apply internally within the investment adviser. As a result, the Fund may not be permitted to transact in (e.g., dispose of a security in whole or in part) during periods when it otherwise would have been able to do so, which could adversely affect the Fund. Other investors in the security that are not subject to such restrictions may be able to transact in the security during such periods. There may also be circumstances in which, as a result of information held by certain portfolio management teams in the investment adviser, the investment adviser limits an activity or transaction for the Fund, including if the Fund is managed by a portfolio management team other than the team holding such information.
Investments by Morgan Stanley and its Affiliated Investment Accounts. In serving in multiple capacities to Affiliated Investment Accounts, Morgan Stanley, including the investment adviser and its investment teams, may have obligations to other clients or investors in Affiliated Investment Accounts, the fulfillment of which may not be in the best interests of the Fund or its shareholders. The Fund’s investment objectives may overlap with the investment objectives of certain Affiliated Investment Accounts. As a result, the members of an investment team may face conflicts in the allocation of investment opportunities among the Fund and other investment funds, programs, accounts and businesses advised by or affiliated with the investment adviser. Certain Affiliated Investment Accounts may provide for higher management or incentive fees or greater expense reimbursements or overhead allocations, all of which may contribute to this conflict of interest and create an incentive for the investment adviser to favor such other accounts.
Morgan Stanley currently invests and plans to continue to invest on its own behalf and on behalf of its Affiliated Investment Accounts in a wide variety of investment opportunities globally. Morgan Stanley and its Affiliated Investment Accounts, to the extent consistent with applicable law and policies and procedures, will be permitted to invest in investment opportunities without making such opportunities available to the Fund beforehand. Subject to the foregoing, Morgan Stanley may offer investments that fall into the investment objectives of an Affiliated Investment Account to such account or make such investment on its own behalf, even though such investment also falls within the Fund’s investment objectives. The Fund may invest in opportunities that Morgan Stanley and/or one or more Affiliated Investment Accounts has declined, and vice versa. All of the foregoing may reduce the number of investment opportunities available to the Fund and may create conflicts of interest in allocating investment opportunities. Investors should note that the conflicts inherent in making such allocation decisions may not always be resolved to the Fund’s advantage. There can be no assurance that the Fund will have an opportunity to participate in certain opportunities that fall within their investment objectives.
To seek to reduce potential conflicts of interest and to attempt to allocate such investment opportunities in a fair and equitable manner, the investment adviser has implemented allocation policies and procedures. These policies and procedures are intended to give all
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clients of the investment adviser, including the Funds, fair access to investment opportunities consistent with the requirements of organizational documents, investment strategies, applicable laws and regulations, and the fiduciary duties of the investment adviser. Each client of the investment adviser that is subject to the allocation policies and procedures, including each Fund, is assigned an investment team and portfolio manager(s) by the investment adviser. The investment team and portfolio managers review investment opportunities and will decide with respect to the allocation of each opportunity considering various factors and in accordance with the allocation policies and procedures. The allocation policies and procedures are subject to change. Investors should note that the conflicts inherent in making such allocation decisions may not always be resolved to the advantage of the Fund.
It is possible that Morgan Stanley or an Affiliated Investment Account, including another Eaton Vance fund, will invest in or advise a company that is or becomes a competitor of a company of which the Fund holds an investment. Such investment could create a conflict between the Fund, on the one hand, and Morgan Stanley or the Affiliated Investment Account, on the other hand. In such a situation, Morgan Stanley may also have a conflict in the allocation of its own resources to the portfolio investment. Furthermore, certain Affiliated Investment Accounts will be focused primarily on investing in other funds which may have strategies that overlap and/or directly conflict and compete with the Fund.
In addition, certain investment professionals who are involved in the Fund’s activities remain responsible for the investment activities of other Affiliated Investment Accounts managed by the investment adviser and its affiliates, and they will devote time to the management of such investments and other newly created Affiliated Investment Accounts (whether in the form of funds, separate accounts or other vehicles), as well as their own investments. In addition, in connection with the management of investments for other Affiliated Investment Accounts, members of Morgan Stanley and its affiliates may serve on the boards of directors of or advise companies which may compete with the Fund’s portfolio investments. Moreover, these Affiliated Investment Accounts managed by Morgan Stanley and its affiliates may pursue investment opportunities that may also be suitable for the Fund.
It should be noted that Morgan Stanley may, directly or indirectly, make large investments in certain of its Affiliated Investment Accounts, and accordingly Morgan Stanley’s investment in the Fund may not be a determining factor in the outcome of any of the foregoing conflicts. Nothing herein restricts or in any way limits the activities of Morgan Stanley, including its ability to buy or sell interests in, or provide financing to, equity and/or debt instruments, funds or portfolio companies, for its own accounts or for the accounts of Affiliated Investment Accounts or other investment funds or clients in accordance with applicable law.
Different clients of the investment adviser, including the Fund, may invest in different classes of securities of the same issuer, depending on the respective clients’ investment objectives and policies. As a result, the investment adviser and its affiliates, at times, will seek to satisfy fiduciary obligations to certain clients owning one class of securities of a particular issuer by pursuing or enforcing rights on behalf of those clients with respect to such class of securities, and those activities may have an adverse effect on another client which owns a different class of securities of such issuer. For example, if one client holds debt securities of an issuer and another client holds equity securities of the same issuer, if the issuer experiences financial or operational challenges, the investment adviser and its affiliates may seek a liquidation of the issuer on behalf of the client that holds the debt securities, whereas the client holding the equity securities may benefit from a reorganization of the issuer. Thus, in such situations, the actions taken by the investment adviser or its affiliates on behalf of one client can negatively impact securities held by another client. These conflicts also exist as between the investment adviser’s clients, including the Funds, and the Affiliated Investment Accounts managed by Morgan Stanley.
The investment adviser and its affiliates may give advice and recommend securities to other clients which may differ from advice given to, or securities recommended or bought for, the Fund even though such other clients’ investment objectives may be similar to those of the Fund.
The investment adviser and its affiliates manage long and short portfolios. The simultaneous management of long and short portfolios creates conflicts of interest in portfolio management and trading in that opposite directional positions may be taken in client accounts, including client accounts managed by the same investment team, and creates risks such as: (i) the risk that short sale activity could adversely affect the market value of long positions in one or more portfolios (and vice versa) and (ii) the risks associated with the trading desk receiving opposing orders in the same security simultaneously. The investment adviser and its affiliates have adopted policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to mitigate these conflicts. In certain circumstances, the investment adviser invests on behalf of itself in securities and other instruments that would be appropriate for, held by, or may fall within the investment guidelines of its clients, including the Fund. At times, the investment adviser may give advice or take action for its own accounts that differs from, conflicts with, or is adverse to advice given or action taken for any client.
From time to time, conflicts also arise due to the fact that certain securities or instruments may be held in some client accounts, including the Fund, but not in others, or that client accounts may have different levels of holdings in certain securities or instruments. In addition, due to differences in the investment strategies or restrictions among client accounts, the investment adviser may take action with respect to one account that differs from the action taken with respect to another account. In some cases, a client account may compensate the investment adviser based on the performance of the securities held by that account. The existence of such a performance based fee may create additional conflicts of interest for the investment adviser in the allocation of management time, resources and investment opportunities. The investment adviser has adopted several policies and procedures designed to address these potential conflicts including a code of ethics and policies that govern the investment adviser’s trading practices, including, among other things, the aggregation and allocation of trades among clients, brokerage allocations, cross trades and best execution.
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In addition, at times an investment adviser investment team will give advice or take action with respect to the investments of one or more clients that is not given or taken with respect to other clients with similar investment programs, objectives, and strategies. Accordingly, clients with similar strategies will not always hold the same securities or instruments or achieve the same performance. The investment adviser’s investment teams also advise clients with conflicting programs, objectives or strategies. These conflicts also exist as between the investment adviser’s clients, including the Funds, and the Affiliated Investment Accounts managed by Morgan Stanley.
The investment adviser maintains separate trading desks by investment team and generally based on asset class, including two trading desks trading equity securities. These trading desks operate independently of one another. The two equity trading desks do not share information. The separate equity trading desks may result in one desk competing against the other desk when implementing buy and sell transactions, possibly causing certain accounts to pay more or receive less for a security than other accounts. In addition, Morgan Stanley and its affiliates maintain separate trading desks that operate independently of each other and do not share trading information with the investment adviser. These trading desks may compete against the investment adviser trading desks when implementing buy and sell transactions, possibly causing certain Affiliated Investment Accounts to pay more or receive less for a security than other Affiliated Investment Accounts.
Investments by Separate Investment Departments. The entities and individuals that provide investment-related services for the Fund and certain other Eaton Vance Investment Accounts (the “Eaton Vance Investment Department”) may be different from the entities and individuals that provide investment-related services to MS Investment Accounts (the “MS Investment Department and, together with the Eaton Vance Investment Department, the ”Investment Departments“). Although Morgan Stanley has implemented information barriers between the Investment Departments in accordance with internal policies and procedures, each Investment Department may engage in discussions and share information and resources with the other Investment Department on certain investment-related matters. The sharing of information and resources between the Investment Departments is designed to further increase the knowledge and effectiveness of each Investment Department. Because each Investment Department generally makes investment decisions and executes trades independently of the other, the quality and price of execution, and the performance of investments and accounts, can be expected to vary. In addition, each Investment Department may use different trading systems and technology and may employ differing investment and trading strategies. As a result, a MS Investment Account could trade in advance of the Fund (and vice versa), might complete trades more quickly and efficiently than the Fund, and/or achieve different execution than the Fund on the same or similar investments made contemporaneously, even when the Investment Departments shared research and viewpoints that led to that investment decision. Any sharing of information or resources between the Investment Department servicing the Fund and the MS Investment Department may result, from time to time, in the Fund simultaneously or contemporaneously seeking to engage in the same or similar transactions as an account serviced by the other Investment Department and for which there are limited buyers or sellers on specific securities, which could result in less favorable execution for the Fund than such account. The Eaton Vance Investment Department will not knowingly or intentionally cause the Fund to engage in a cross trade with an account serviced by the MS Investment Department, however, subject to applicable law and internal policies and procedures, the Fund may conduct cross trades with other accounts serviced by the Eaton Vance Investment Department. Although the Eaton Vance Investment Department may aggregate the Fund’s trades with trades of other accounts serviced by the Eaton Vance Investment Department, subject to applicable law and internal policies and procedures, there will be no aggregation or coordination of trades with accounts serviced by the MS Investment Department, even when both Investment Departments are seeking to acquire or dispose of the same investments contemporaneously.
Payments to Broker-Dealers and Other Financial Intermediaries. The investment adviser and/or EVD may pay compensation, out of their own funds and not as an expense of the Funds, to certain financial intermediaries (which may include affiliates of the investment adviser and EVD), including recordkeepers and administrators of various deferred compensation plans, in connection with the sale, distribution, marketing and retention of shares of the Funds and/or shareholder servicing. For example, the investment adviser or EVD may pay additional compensation to a financial intermediary for, among other things, promoting the sale and distribution of Fund shares, providing access to various programs, mutual fund platforms or preferred or recommended mutual fund lists that may be offered by a financial intermediary, granting EVD access to a financial intermediary’s financial advisors and consultants, providing assistance in the ongoing education and training of a financial intermediary’s financial personnel, furnishing marketing support, maintaining share balances and/or for sub-accounting, recordkeeping, administrative, shareholder or transaction processing services. Such payments are in addition to any distribution fees, shareholder servicing fees and/or transfer agency fees that may be payable by the Funds. The additional payments may be based on various factors, including level of sales (based on gross or net sales or some specified minimum sales or some other similar criteria related to sales of the Funds and/or some or all other Eaton Vance funds), amount of assets invested by the financial intermediary’s customers (which could include current or aged assets of the Funds and/or some or all other Eaton Vance funds), the Fund’s advisory fee, some other agreed upon amount or other measures as determined from time to time by the investment adviser and/or EVD. The amount of these payments may be different for different financial intermediaries.
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The prospect of receiving, or the receipt of, additional compensation, as described above, by financial intermediaries may provide such financial intermediaries and their financial advisors and other salespersons with an incentive to favor sales of shares of the Funds over other investment options with respect to which these financial intermediaries do not receive additional compensation (or receive lower levels of additional compensation). These payment arrangements, however, will not change the price that an investor pays for shares of the Funds or the amount that the Funds receive to invest on behalf of an investor. Investors may wish to take such payment arrangements into account when considering and evaluating any recommendations relating to Fund shares and should review carefully any disclosures provided by financial intermediaries as to their compensation. In addition, in certain circumstances, the investment adviser may restrict, limit or reduce the amount of the Fund’s investment, or restrict the type of governance or voting rights it acquires or exercises, where the Fund (potentially together with Morgan Stanley) exceeds a certain ownership interest, or possesses certain degrees of voting or control or has other interests.
Morgan Stanley Trading and Principal Investing Activities. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary herein, Morgan Stanley will generally conduct its sales and trading businesses, publish research and analysis, and render investment advice without regard for the Fund’s holdings, although these activities could have an adverse impact on the value of one or more of the Fund’s investments, or could cause Morgan Stanley to have an interest in one or more portfolio investments that is different from, and potentially adverse to that of the Fund. Furthermore, from time to time, the investment adviser or its affiliates may invest “seed” capital in the Fund, typically to enable the Fund to commence investment operations and/or achieve sufficient scale. The investment adviser and its affiliates may hedge such seed capital exposure by investing in derivatives or other instruments expected to produce offsetting exposure. Such hedging transactions, if any, would occur outside of the Fund.
Morgan Stanley’s sales and trading, financing and principal investing businesses (whether or not specifically identified as such, and including Morgan Stanley’s trading and principal investing businesses) will not be required to offer any investment opportunities to the Fund. These businesses may encompass, among other things, principal trading activities as well as principal investing.
Morgan Stanley’s sales and trading, financing and principal investing businesses have acquired or invested in, and in the future may acquire or invest in, minority and/or majority control positions in equity or debt instruments of diverse public and/or private companies. Such activities may put Morgan Stanley in a position to exercise contractual, voting or creditor rights, or management or other control with respect to securities or loans of portfolio investments or other issuers, and in these instances Morgan Stanley may, in its discretion and subject to applicable law, act to protect its own interests or interests of clients, and not the Fund’s interests.
Subject to the limitations of applicable law, the Fund may purchase from or sell assets to, or make investments in, companies in which Morgan Stanley has or may acquire an interest, including as an owner, creditor or counterparty.
Morgan Stanley’s Investment Banking and Other Commercial Activities. Morgan Stanley advises clients on a variety of mergers, acquisitions, restructuring, bankruptcy and financing transactions. Morgan Stanley may act as an advisor to clients, including other investment funds that may compete with the Fund and with respect to investments that the Fund may hold. Morgan Stanley may give advice and take action with respect to any of its clients or proprietary accounts that may differ from the advice given, or may involve an action of a different timing or nature than the action taken, by the Fund. Morgan Stanley may give advice and provide recommendations to persons competing with the Fund and/or any of the Fund’s investments that are contrary to the Fund’s best interests and/or the best interests of any of its investments.
Morgan Stanley could be engaged in financial advising, whether on the buy-side or sell-side, or in financing or lending assignments that could result in Morgan Stanley’s determining in its discretion or being required to act exclusively on behalf of one or more third parties, which could limit the Fund’s ability to transact with respect to one or more existing or potential investments. Morgan Stanley may have relationships with third-party funds, companies or investors who may have invested in or may look to invest in portfolio companies, and there could be conflicts between the Fund’s best interests, on the one hand, and the interests of a Morgan Stanley client or counterparty, on the other hand.
To the extent that Morgan Stanley advises creditor or debtor companies in the financial restructuring of companies either prior to or after filing for protection under Chapter 11 of the U.S. Bankruptcy Code or similar laws in other jurisdictions, the investment adviser’s flexibility in making investments in such restructurings on the Fund’s behalf may be limited. Morgan Stanley could provide investment banking services to competitors of portfolio companies, as well as to private equity and/or private credit funds; such activities may present Morgan Stanley with a conflict of interest vis-a-vis the Fund’s investment and may also result in a conflict in respect of the allocation of investment banking resources to portfolio companies.
To the extent permitted by applicable law, Morgan Stanley may provide a broad range of financial services to companies in which the Fund invests, including strategic and financial advisory services, interim acquisition financing and other lending and underwriting or placement of securities, and Morgan Stanley generally will be paid fees (that may include warrants or other securities) for such services. Morgan Stanley will not share any of the foregoing interest, fees and other compensation received by it (including, for the avoidance of doubt, amounts received by the investment adviser) with the Fund, and any advisory fees payable will not be reduced thereby.
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Morgan Stanley may be engaged to act as a financial advisor to a company in connection with the sale of such company, or subsidiaries or divisions thereof, may represent potential buyers of businesses through its mergers and acquisition activities and may provide lending and other related financing services in connection with such transactions. Morgan Stanley’s compensation for such activities is usually based upon realized consideration and is usually contingent, in substantial part, upon the closing of the transaction. Under these circumstances, the Fund may be precluded from participating in a transaction with or relating to the company being sold or participating in any financing activity related to merger or acquisition.
The involvement or presence of Morgan Stanley in the investment banking and other commercial activities described above (or the financial markets more broadly) may restrict or otherwise limit investment opportunities that may otherwise be available to the Funds. For example, issuers may hire and compensate Morgan Stanley to provide underwriting, financial advisory, placement agency, brokerage services or other services and, because of limitations imposed by applicable law and regulation, the Fund may be prohibited from buying or selling securities issued by those issuers or participating in related transactions or otherwise limited in its ability to engage in such investments. The investment adviser believes that the nature and range of clients to whom Morgan Stanley and its subsidiaries render investment banking and other services is such that it would be inadvisable to exclude these companies from the Fund’s portfolio.
Morgan Stanley’s Marketing Activities. Morgan Stanley is engaged in the business of underwriting, syndicating, brokering, administering, servicing, arranging and advising on the distribution of a wide variety of securities and other investments in which the Fund may invest. Subject to the restrictions of the 1940 Act, including Sections 10(f) and 17(e) thereof, the Fund may invest in transactions in which Morgan Stanley acts as underwriter, placement agent, syndicator, broker, administrative agent, servicer, advisor, arranger or structuring agent and receives fees or other compensation from the sponsors of such products or securities. Any fees earned by Morgan Stanley in such capacity will not be shared with the investment adviser or the Funds. Certain conflicts of interest, in addition to the receipt of fees or other compensation, would be inherent in these transactions. Moreover, the interests of one of Morgan Stanley’s clients with respect to an issuer of securities in which the Fund has an investment may be adverse to the investment adviser’s or the Fund’s best interests. In conducting the foregoing activities, Morgan Stanley will be acting for its other clients and will have no obligation to act in the investment adviser’s or the Fund’s best interests.
Client Relationships. Morgan Stanley has existing and potential relationships with a significant number of corporations, institutions and individuals. In providing services to its clients, Morgan Stanley may face conflicts of interest with respect to activities recommended to or performed for such clients, on the one hand, and the Fund, its shareholders or the entities in which the Fund invests, on the other hand. In addition, these client relationships may present conflicts of interest in determining whether to offer certain investment opportunities to the Fund.
In acting as principal or in providing advisory and other services to its other clients, Morgan Stanley may engage in or recommend activities with respect to a particular matter that conflict with or are different from activities engaged in or recommended by the investment adviser on the Fund’s behalf.
Principal Investments. To the extent permitted by applicable law, there may be situations in which the Fund’s interests may conflict with the interests of one or more general accounts of Morgan Stanley and its affiliates or accounts managed by Morgan Stanley or its affiliates. This may occur because these accounts hold public and private debt and equity securities of many issuers which may be or become portfolio companies, or from whom portfolio companies may be acquired.
Transactions with Portfolio Companies of Affiliated Investment Accounts. The companies in which the Fund may invest may be counterparties to or participants in agreements, transactions or other arrangements with portfolio companies or other entities of portfolio investments of Affiliated Investment Accounts (for example, a company in which the Fund invests may retain a company in which an Affiliated Investment Account invests to provide services or may acquire an asset from such company or vice versa). Certain of these agreements, transactions and arrangements involve fees, servicing payments, rebates and/or other benefits to Morgan Stanley or its affiliates. For example, portfolio entities may, including at the encouragement of Morgan Stanley, enter into agreements regarding group procurement and/or vendor discounts. Morgan Stanley and its affiliates may also participate in these agreements and may realize better pricing or discounts as a result of the participation of portfolio entities. To the extent permitted by applicable law, certain of these agreements may provide for commissions or similar payments and/or discounts or rebates to be paid to a portfolio entity of an Affiliated Investment Account, and such payments or discounts or rebates may also be made directly to Morgan Stanley or its affiliates. Under these arrangements, a particular portfolio company or other entity may benefit to a greater degree than the other participants, and the funds, investment vehicles and accounts (which may or may not include the Fund) that own an interest in such entity will receive a greater relative benefit from the arrangements than the Eaton Vance funds, investment vehicles or accounts that do not own an interest therein. Fees and compensation received by portfolio companies of Affiliated Investment Accounts in relation to the foregoing will not be shared with the Fund or offset advisory fees payable.
Investments in Portfolio Investments of Other Funds. To the extent permitted by applicable law, when the Fund invests in certain companies or other entities, other funds affiliated with the investment adviser may have made or may be making an investment in such companies or other entities. Other funds that have been or may be managed by the investment adviser may invest in the companies or other entities in which the Fund has made an investment. Under such circumstances, the Fund and such other funds may have conflicts
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of interest (e.g., over the terms, exit strategies and related matters, including the exercise of remedies of their respective investments). If the interests held by the Fund are different from (or take priority over) those held by such other funds, the investment adviser may be required to make a selection at the time of conflicts between the interests held by such other funds and the interests held by the Fund.
Allocation of Expenses. Expenses may be incurred that are attributable to the Fund and one or more other Affiliated Investment Accounts (including in connection with issuers in which the Fund and such other Affiliated Investment Accounts have overlapping investments). The allocation of such expenses among such entities raises potential conflicts of interest. The investment adviser and its affiliates intend to allocate such common expenses among the Fund and any such other Affiliated Investment Accounts on a pro rata basis or in such other manner as the investment adviser deems to be fair and equitable or in such other manner as may be required by applicable law.
Temporary Investments. To more efficiently invest short-term cash balances held by the Fund, the investment adviser may invest such balances on an overnight “sweep” basis in shares of one or more money market funds or other short-term vehicles. It is anticipated that the investment adviser to these money market funds or other short-term vehicles may be the investment adviser (or an affiliate) to the extent permitted by applicable law, including Rule 12d1-1 under the 1940 Act.
Transactions with Affiliates. The investment adviser and any investment sub-adviser might purchase securities from underwriters or placement agents in which a Morgan Stanley affiliate is a member of a syndicate or selling group, as a result of which an affiliate might benefit from the purchase through receipt of a fee or otherwise. Neither the investment adviser nor any investment sub-adviser will purchase securities on behalf of the Fund from an affiliate that is acting as a manager of a syndicate or selling group. Purchases by the investment adviser on behalf of the Fund from an affiliate acting as a placement agent must meet the requirements of applicable law. Furthermore, Morgan Stanley may face conflicts of interest when the Funds use service providers affiliated with Morgan Stanley because Morgan Stanley receives greater overall fees when they are used.
General Process for Potential Conflicts. All of the transactions described above involve the potential for conflicts of interest between the investment adviser, related persons of the investment adviser and/or their clients. The Advisers Act, the 1940 Act and ERISA impose certain requirements designed to decrease the possibility of conflicts of interest between an investment adviser and its clients. In some cases, transactions may be permitted subject to fulfillment of certain conditions. Certain other transactions may be prohibited. In addition, the investment adviser has instituted policies and procedures designed to prevent conflicts of interest from arising and, when they do arise, to ensure that it effects transactions for clients in a manner that is consistent with its fiduciary duty to its clients and in accordance with applicable law. The investment adviser seeks to ensure that potential or actual conflicts of interest are appropriately resolved taking into consideration the overriding best interests of the client.
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INCORPORATION BY REFERENCE
This SAI is part of a registration statement filed with the SEC. The Fund is permitted to “incorporate by reference” the information filed with the SEC, which means that the Fund can disclose important information to you by referring you to those documents. The information incorporated by reference is considered to be part of this SAI, and later information that the Fund files with the SEC will automatically update and supersede this information.
The documents listed below, and any reports and other documents subsequently filed with the SEC pursuant to Rule 30(b)(2) under the 1940 Act and Sections 13(a), 13(c), 14 or 15(d) of the Exchange Act, prior to the termination of the offering will be incorporated by reference into this SAI and deemed to be part of this SAI from the date of the filing of such reports and documents
• | The Fund’s Prospectus, dated January 17, 2025, filed with this SAI; |
• | our annual report on Form N-CSR for the fiscal year ended September 30, 2024 filed with the SEC on November 26, 2024; |
• | the description of the Fund’s common shares contained in its Registration Statement on Form 8-A filed with the SEC on September 21, 2004, including any amendment or report filed for the purpose of updating such description prior to the termination of the offering registered hereby. |
The Fund will provide without charge to each person, including any beneficial owner, to whom this SAI is delivered, upon written or oral request, a copy of any and all of the documents that have been or may be incorporated by reference in this SAI, the Prospectus or the accompanying prospectus supplement. You should direct requests for documents by calling (800) 262-1122.
The Fund makes available the Prospectus, SAI and the Fund’s annual and semi-annual reports, free of charge, at http://www.eatonvance.com. You may also obtain this SAI, the Prospectus, other documents incorporated by reference and other information the Fund files electronically, including reports and proxy statements, on the SEC website (http://www.sec.gov) or with the payment of a duplication fee, by electronic request at [email protected]. Information contained in, or that can be accessed through, the Fund’s website is not part of this SAI, the Prospectus or the accompanying prospectus supplement.
FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
The audited financial statements and the report of the independent registered public accounting firm of the Fund, for the fiscal year ended September 30, 2024, are incorporated herein by reference from the Fund’s most recent Annual Report to Common Shareholders filed with the SEC on November 26, 2024 (Accession No. 0001193125-24-266029) on Form N-CSR pursuant to Rule 30b2-1 under the 1940 Act.
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APPENDIX A
RATINGS
The ratings indicated herein are believed to be the most recent ratings available at the date of this SAI for the securities listed. Ratings are generally given to securities at the time of issuance. While the rating agencies may from time to time revise such ratings, they undertake no obligation to do so, and the ratings indicated do not necessarily represent ratings which would be given to these securities on a particular date.
MOODY’S INVESTORS SERVICE, INC. (“Moody’s”)
Ratings assigned on Moody’s global long-term and short-term rating scales are forward-looking opinions of the relative credit risks of financial obligations issued by non-financial corporates, financial institutions, structured finance vehicles, project finance vehicles, and public sector entities. Long-term ratings are assigned to issuers or obligations with an original maturity of eleven months or more and reflect both the likelihood of a default or impairment on contractual financial obligations and the expected financial loss suffered in the event of default or impairment. Short-term ratings are assigned to obligations with an original maturity of thirteen months or less and reflect the likelihood of a default or impairment on contractual financial obligations and the expected financial loss suffered in the event of a default or impairment.
GLOBAL LONG-TERM RATINGS SCALE
Aaa: Obligations rated Aaa are judged to be of the highest quality, subject to the lowest level of credit risk.
Aa: Obligations rated Aa are judged to be of high quality and are subject to very low credit risk.
A: Obligations rated A are considered upper-medium grade and are subject to low credit risk.
Baa: Obligations rated Baa are judged to be medium-grade and subject to moderate credit risk and as such may possess certain speculative characteristics
Ba: Obligations rated Ba are judged to be speculative and are subject to substantial credit risk.
B: Obligations rated B are considered speculative and are subject to high credit risk.
Caa: Obligations rated Caa are judged to be speculative of poor standing and are subject to very high credit risk.
Ca: Obligations rated Ca are highly speculative and are likely in, or very near, default, with some prospect of recovery of principal and interest.
C: Obligations rated C are the lowest rated and are typically in default, with little prospect for recovery of principal or interest.
Note: Moody’s appends numerical modifiers, 1, 2, and 3 to each generic rating classification from Aa through Caa. The modifier 1 indicates that the obligation ranks in the higher end of its generic rating category; the modifier 2 indicates a mid-range ranking; and the modifier 3 indicates a ranking in the lower end of that generic rating category.
GLOBAL SHORT-TERM RATING SCALE
Moody’s short-term ratings are opinions of the ability of issuers to honor short-term financial obligations. Ratings may be assigned to issuers, short-term programs or to individual short-term debt instruments. Such obligations generally have an original maturity not exceeding thirteen months, unless explicitly noted.
P-1: Ratings of Prime-1 have a superior ability to repay short-term debt obligations.
P-2: Ratings of Prime-2 have a strong ability to repay short-term debt obligations.
P-3: Ratings of Prime-3 have an acceptable ability to repay short-term obligations.
NP: Issuers (or supporting institutions) rated Not Prime do not fall within any of the Prime ratings categories.
ISSUER RATINGS
Issuer Ratings are opinions of the ability of entities to honor senior unsecured debt and debt like obligations. As such, Issuer Ratings incorporate any external support that is expected to apply to all current and future issuance of senior unsecured financial obligations and contracts, such as explicit support stemming from a guarantee of all senior unsecured financial obligations and contracts, and/or implicit support for issuers subject to joint default analysis (e.g. banks and government-related issuers). Issuer Ratings do not incorporate support arrangements, such as guarantees, that apply only to specific (but not to all) senior unsecured financial obligations and contracts.
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US MUNICIPAL SHORT-TERM OBLIGATION RATINGS AND DEMAND OBLIGATION RATINGS
SHORT-TERM OBLIGATION RATINGS
The global short-term ‘prime’ rating scale is applied to commercial paper issued by U.S. municipalities and nonprofits. These commercial paper programs may be backed by external letters of credit or liquidity facilities, or by an issuer’s self-liquidity.
For other short-term municipal obligations, Moody’s uses one of two other short-term rating scales, the Municipal Investment Grade (MIG) and Variable Municipal Investment Grade (VMIG) scales discussed below.
The MIG scale is used for U.S. municipal cash flow notes, bond anticipation notes and certain other short-term obligations, which typically mature in three years or less. Under certain circumstances, the MIG scale is used for bond anticipation notes with maturities of up to five years.
MIG 1 This designation denotes superior credit quality. Excellent protection is afforded by established cash flows, highly reliable liquidity support, or demonstrated broad-based access to the market for refinancing.
MIG 2 This designation denotes strong credit quality. Margins of protection are ample, although not as large as in the preceding group.
MIG 3 This designation denotes acceptable credit quality. Liquidity and cash-flow protection may be narrow, and market access for refinancing is likely to be less well-established.
SG This designation denotes speculative-grade credit quality. Debt instruments in this category may lack sufficient margins of protection.
Demand Obligation Ratings
For variable rate demand obligations (VRDOs), Moody’s assigns both a long-term rating and a short-term payment obligation rating. The long-term rating addresses the issuer’s ability to meet scheduled principal and interest payments. The short-term payment obligation rating addresses the ability of the issuer or the liquidity provider to meet any purchase price payment obligation resulting from optional tenders (“on demand”) and/or mandatory tenders of the VRDO. The short-term demand obligation rating uses the VMIG scale. Transitions of VMIG ratings with conditional liquidity support differ from transitions of Prime ratings reflecting reflect the risk that external liquidity support will terminate if the issuer’s long-term rating drops below investment grade.
VMIG 1: This designation denotes superior credit quality. Excellent protection is afforded by the superior short-term credit strength of the liquidity provider and structural and legal protections.
VMIG 2: This designation denotes strong credit quality. Good protection is afforded by the strong short-term credit strength of the liquidity provider and structural and legal protections.
VMIG 3: This designation denotes acceptable credit quality. Adequate protection is afforded by the satisfactory short-term credit strength of the liquidity provider and structural and legal protections.
SG: This designation denotes speculative-grade credit quality. Demand features rated in this category may be supported by a liquidity provider that does not have a sufficiently strong short-term rating or may lack the structural or legal protections.
S&P GLOBAL RATINGS (“S&P”)
ISSUE CREDIT RATINGS DEFINITIONS
An S&P issue credit rating is a forward-looking opinion about the creditworthiness of an obligor with respect to a specific financial obligation, a specific class of financial obligations, or a specific financial program (including ratings on medium-term note programs and commercial paper programs). It takes into consideration the creditworthiness of guarantors, insurers, or other forms of credit enhancement on the obligation and takes into account the currency in which the obligation is denominated. The opinion reflects S&P’s view of the obligor’s capacity and willingness to meet its financial commitments as they come due, and may assess terms, such as collateral security and subordination, which could affect ultimate payment in the event of default.
Issue credit ratings can be either long-term or short-term. Short-term issue credit ratings are generally assigned to those obligations considered short-term in the relevant market, typically with an original maturity of no more than 365 days. Short-term issue credit ratings are also used to indicate the creditworthiness of an obligor with respect to put features on long-term obligations. Medium-term notes are assigned long-term ratings.
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LONG-TERM ISSUE CREDIT RATINGS:
Issue credit ratings are based, in varying degrees, on S&P’s analysis of the following considerations:
• | Likelihood of payment—capacity and willingness of the obligor to meet its financial commitment on an obligation in accordance with the terms of the obligation; |
• | Nature of and provisions of the financial obligation and the promise that it is imputed; and |
• | Protection afforded by, and relative position of, the financial obligation in the event of bankruptcy, reorganization, or other arrangement under the laws of bankruptcy and other laws affecting creditors’ rights. |
Issue ratings are an assessment of default risk, but may incorporate an assessment of relative seniority or ultimate recovery in the event of default. Junior obligations are typically rated lower than senior obligations, to reflect the lower priority in bankruptcy, as noted above. (Such differentiation may apply when an entity has both senior and subordinated obligations, secured and unsecured obligations, or operating company and holding company obligations.)
AAA: An obligation rated ‘AAA’ has the highest rating assigned by S&P. The obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitment on the obligation is extremely strong.
AA: An obligation rated ‘AA’ differs from the highest-rated obligors only to a small degree. The obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation is very strong.
A: An obligation rated ‘A’ is somewhat more susceptible to the adverse effects of changes in circumstances and economic conditions than obligations in higher-rated categories. However, the obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation is still strong.
BBB: An obligation rated ‘BBB’ exhibits adequate protection parameters. However, adverse economic conditions or changing circumstances are more likely to weaken the obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation.
BB, B, CCC, CC and C
Obligations rated ‘BB’, ‘B’, ‘CCC’, ‘CC’, and ‘C’ are regarded as having significant speculative characteristics. ‘BB’ indicates the least degree of speculation and ‘C’ the highest. While such obligations will likely have some quality and protective characteristics, these may be outweighed by large uncertainties or major exposures to adverse conditions.
BB: An obligation rated ‘BB’ is less vulnerable to non-payment than other speculative issues. However, it faces major ongoing uncertainties or exposure to adverse business, financial, or economic conditions that could lead to the obligor’s inadequate capacity to meet its financial commitment on the obligation.
B: An obligation rated ‘B’ is more vulnerable to nonpayment than obligations rated ‘BB’, but the obligor currently has the capacity to meet its financial commitment on the obligation. Adverse business, financial or economic conditions will likely impair the obligor’s capacity or willingness to meet its financial commitment on the obligation.
CCC: An obligation rated ‘CCC’ is currently vulnerable to nonpayment, and is dependent upon favorable business, financial, and economic conditions for the obligor to meet its financial commitments on the obligation. In the event of adverse business, financial or, economic conditions, the obligor is not likely to have the capacity to meet its financial commitment on the obligation.
CC: An obligation rated ‘CC’ is currently highly vulnerable to nonpayment. The ‘CC’ rating is used when a default has not yet occurred, but S&P expects default to be a virtual certainty, regardless of the anticipated time to default.
C: An obligation rated ‘C’ is currently highly vulnerable to nonpayment, and the obligation is expected to have lower relative seniority or lower ultimate recovery compared to obligations that are rated higher.
D: An obligation rated ‘D’ is in default or in breach of an imputed promise. For non-hybrid capital instruments, the ‘D’ rating category is used when payments on an obligation are not made on the date due, unless S&P believes that such payments will be made within five business days in the absence of a stated grace period or within the earlier of the stated grace period or 30 calendar days. The ‘D’ rating also will be used upon the filing of a bankruptcy petition or the taking of similar action and where default on an obligation is a virtual certainty, for example due to automatic stay provisions. An obligation’s rating is lowered to ‘D’ if it is subject to a distressed debt restructuring.
NR: This indicates that a rating has not been assigned or is no longer assigned.
Plus (+) or Minus (-): The ratings from ‘AA’ to’ CCC’ may be modified by the addition of a plus (+) or minus (-) sign to show relative standing within the major rating categories.
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SHORT-TERM ISSUE CREDIT RATINGS
A-1: A short-term obligation rated ‘A-1’ is rated in the highest category by S&P. The obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitment on the obligation is strong. Within this category, certain obligations are designated with a plus sign (+). This indicates that the obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments on the obligation is extremely strong.
A-2: A short-term obligation rated ‘A-2’ is somewhat more susceptible to the adverse effects of changes in circumstances and economic conditions than obligations in higher rating categories. However, the obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitment on the obligation is satisfactory.
A-3: A short-term obligation rated ‘A-3’ exhibits adequate protection parameters. However, adverse economic conditions or changing circumstances are more likely to weaken an obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitment on the obligation.
B: A short-term obligation rated ‘B’ is regarded as vulnerable and has significant speculative characteristics. The obligor currently has the capacity to meet its financial commitments; however, it faces major ongoing uncertainties which could lead to the obligor’s inadequate capacity to meet its financial commitments.
C: A short-term obligation rated ‘C’ is currently vulnerable to nonpayment and is dependent upon favorable business, financial and economic conditions for the obligor to meet its financial commitments on the obligation.
D: A short-term obligation rated ‘D’ is in default or in breach of an imputed promise. For non-hybrid capital instruments, the ‘D’ rating category is used when payments on an obligation are not made on the date due, unless S&P believes that such payments will be made within any stated grace period. However, any stated grace period longer than five business days will be treated as five business days. The ‘D’ rating also will be used upon the filing of a bankruptcy petition or the taking of a similar action and where default on an obligation is a virtual certainty, for example due to automatic stay provisions. A rating on an obligation is lowered to ‘D’ if it is subject to a distressed exchange offer.
ISSUER CREDIT RATINGS DEFINITIONS
S&P’s issuer credit rating is a forward-looking opinion about an obligor’s overall creditworthiness. This opinion focuses on the obligor’s capacity and willingness to meet its financial commitments as they come due. It does not apply to any specific financial obligation, as it does not take into account the nature of and provisions of the obligation, its standing in bankruptcy or liquidation, statutory preferences, or the legality and enforceability of the obligation.
Sovereign credit ratings are forms of issuer credit ratings.
Issuer credit ratings can be either long-term or short-term.
LONG-TERM ISSUER CREDIT RATINGS
AAA: An obligor rated ‘AAA’ has extremely strong capacity to meet its financial commitments. ‘AAA’ is the highest issuer credit rating assigned by S&P.
AA: An obligor rated ‘AA’ has very strong capacity to meet its financial commitments. It differs from the highest-rated obligors only to a small degree.
A: An obligor rated ‘A’ has strong capacity to meet its financial commitments but is somewhat more susceptible to the adverse effects of changes in circumstances and economic conditions than obligors in higher-rated categories.
BBB: An obligor rated ‘BBB’ has adequate capacity to meet its financial commitments. However, adverse economic conditions or changing circumstances are more likely to weaken the obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments.
BB, B, CCC and CC
Obligors rated ‘BB’, ‘B’, ‘CCC’, and ‘CC’ are regarded as having significant speculative characteristics. ‘BB’ indicates the least degree of speculation and ‘CC’ the highest. While such obligors will likely have some quality and protective characteristics, these may be outweighed by large uncertainties or major exposure to adverse conditions.
BB: An obligor ‘BB’ is less vulnerable in the near term than other lower-rated obligors. However, it faces major ongoing uncertainties and exposure to adverse business, financial, or economic conditions that could lead to the obligor’s inadequate capacity to meet its financial commitments.
B: An obligor rated ‘B’ is more vulnerable than the obligors rated ‘BB’, but the obligor currently has the capacity to meet its financial commitments. Adverse business, financial, or economic conditions will likely impair the obligor’s capacity or willingness to meets its financial commitments.
CCC: An obligor rated ‘CCC’ is currently vulnerable, and is dependent upon favorable business, financial, and economic conditions to meet its financial commitments.
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CC: An obligor rated ‘CC’ is currently highly vulnerable. The ‘CC’ rating is used when a default has not yet occurred, but S&P expects default to be a virtual certainty, regardless of the anticipated time to default.
SD and D: An obligor is rated ‘SD’ (selective default) or ‘D’ if S&P considers there to be a default on one or more of its financial obligations, whether long -or short-term, including rated and unrated financial obligations but excluding hybrid instruments classified as regulatory capital or in non-payment according to terms. A ‘D’ rating is assigned when S&P believes that the default will be a general default and that the obligor will fail to pay all or substantially all of its obligations as they come due. An ‘SD’ rating is assigned when S&P believes that the obligor has selectively defaulted on a specific issue or class of obligations but it will continue to meet its payment obligations on other issues or classes of obligations in a timely manner. A rating on an obligor is lowered to ‘D’ or ‘SD’ if it is conducting a distressed exchange offer.
NR: Indicates that a rating has not been assigned or is no longer assigned.
Plus (+) or Minus (-): The ratings from ‘AA’ to’ CCC’ may be modified by the addition of a plus (+) or minus (-) sign to show relative standing within the major rating categories.
SHORT-TERM ISSUER CREDIT RATINGS
A-1: An obligor rated ‘A-1’ has strong capacity to meet its financial commitments. It is rated in the highest category by S&P. Within this category, certain obligors are designated with a plus sign (+). This indicates that the obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments is extremely strong.
A-2: An obligor rated ‘A-2’ has satisfactory capacity to meet its financial commitments. However, it is somewhat more susceptible to the adverse effects of changes in circumstances and economic conditions than obligors in the highest rating category.
A-3: An obligor rated ‘A-3’ has adequate capacity to meet its financial obligations. However, adverse economic conditions or changing circumstances are more likely to weaken the obligor’s capacity to meet its financial commitments.
B: An obligor rated ‘B’ is regarded as vulnerable and has significant speculative characteristics. The obligor currently has the capacity to meet its financial commitments; however, it faces major ongoing uncertainties which could lead to the obligor’s inadequate capacity to meet its financial commitments.
C: An obligor rated ‘C’ is currently vulnerable to nonpayment that would result in a ‘SD’ or ‘D’ issuer rating, and is dependent upon favorable business, financial, and economic conditions for it to meet its financial commitments.
SD and D: An obligor is rated ‘SD’ (selective default) or ‘D’ if S&P considers there to be a default on one or more of its financial obligations, whether long- or short-term, including rated and unrated obligations but excluding hybrid instruments classified as regulatory capital or in nonpayment according to term. An obligor is considered in default unless S&P believes that such payments will be made within any stated grace period. However, any stated grace period longer than five business days will be treated as five business days. A ‘D’ rating is assigned when S&P believes that the default will be a general default and that the obligor will fail to pay all or substantially all of its obligations as they come due. An ‘SD’ rating is assigned when S&P believes that the obligor has selectively defaulted on a specific issue or class of obligations, excluding hybrid instruments classified as regulatory capital, but it will continue to meet its payment obligations on other issues or classes of obligations in a timely manner. An obligor’s rating is lowered to ‘D’ or ‘SD’ if it is conducting a distressed debt restructuring.
NR: Indicates that a rating has not been assigned or is no longer assigned.
MUNICIPAL SHORT-TERM NOTE RATINGS
SHORT-TERM NOTES: An S&P U.S. municipal note rating reflects S&P opinions about the liquidity factors and market access risks unique to notes. Notes due in three years or less will likely receive a note rating. Notes with an original maturity of more than three years will most likely receive a long-term debt rating. In determining which type of rating, if any, to assign, S&P’s analysis will review the following considerations: Amortization schedule--the larger the final maturity relative to other maturities, the more likely it will be treated as a note; and Source of payment--the more dependent the issue is on the market for its refinancing, the more likely it will be treated as a note.
Municipal Short-Term Note rating symbols are as follows:
SP-1: Strong capacity to pay principal and interest. An issue determined to possess a very strong capacity to pay debt will be given a plus (+) designation.
SP-2: Satisfactory capacity to pay principal and interest, with some vulnerability to adverse financial and economic changes over the term of the notes.
SP-3: Speculative capacity to pay principal and interest.
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D: ‘D’ is assigned upon failure to pay the note when due, completion of a distressed debt restructuring, or the filing of a bankruptcy petition or the taking of similar action and where default on an obligation is a virtual certainty, for example due to automatic stay provisions.
FITCH RATINGS
LONG-TERM CREDIT RATINGS
Issuer Default Ratings
AAA: Highest credit quality. ‘AAA’ ratings denote the lowest expectation of default risk. They are assigned only in case of exceptionally strong capacity for payment of financial commitments. The capacity is highly unlikely to be adversely affected by foreseeable events.
AA: Very high credit quality. ‘AA’ ratings denote expectations of very low default risk. They indicate very strong capacity for payment of financial commitments. This capacity is not significantly vulnerable to foreseeable events.
A: High credit quality. ‘A’ ratings denote expectations of low default risk. This capacity for payment of financial commitments is considered strong. The capacity may, nevertheless, be more vulnerable to adverse business or in economic conditions than is the case for higher ratings.
BBB: Good credit quality. ‘BBB’ ratings indicate that expectations of default risk are currently low. The capacity for payment of financial commitments is considered adequate but adverse business or economic conditions are more likely to impair this capacity.
BB: Speculative. ‘BB’ ratings indicate an elevated vulnerability to default risk, particularly in the event of adverse changes in business or economic conditions over time; however, business or financial flexibility exist that supports the servicing of financial commitments.
B: Highly speculative. B’ ratings indicate that material default risk is present, but a limited margin of safety remains. Financial commitments are currently being met; however, capacity for continued payment is vulnerable to deterioration in the business and economic environment.
CCC: Substantial credit risk. Very low margin for safety. Default is a real possibility.
CC: Very high levels of credit risk. Default of some kind appears probable.
C: Near default. A default or default-like process has begun, or the issuer is in standstill, or for a closed funding vehicle, payment capacity is irrevocably impaired. Conditions that are indicative of a ‘C’ category rating for an issuer include:
• | The issuer has entered into a grace or cure period following non-payment of a material financial obligation; |
• | The issuer had entered into a temporary negotiated waiver or standstill agreement following a payment default on a material financial obligation; |
• | The formal announcement by the issuer or their agent of distressed debt exchange; |
• | A closed financing vehicle where payment capacity is irrevocably impaired such that it is not expected to pay interest and/or principal in full during the life of the transaction, but where no payment default is imminent. |
RD: Restricted Default. ‘RD’ ratings indicate an issuer that in Fitch’s opinion has experienced:
• | An unsecured payment default or distressed debt exchange on a bond, loan or other material financial obligation, but |
• | Has not entered into bankruptcy filings, administration, receivership, liquidation, or other formal winding-up procedure, and |
• | Has not otherwise ceased operating. |
This would include:
• | The selective payment default on specific class or currency of debt; |
• | The uncured expiry of any applicable grace period, cure period or default forbearance period following a payment default on a bank loan, capital markets security or other material financial obligation; |
• | The extension of multiple waivers of forbearance periods upon a payment default on one or more material financial obligations, either in series or in parallel; ordinary execution of a distressed debt exchange on one or more material financial obligations. |
D: Default. ‘D’ ratings indicate an issuer that in Fitch’s opinion has entered into bankruptcy filings, administration, receivership, liquidation or other formal winding-up procedure or that has otherwise ceased business.
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• | Default ratings are not assigned prospectively to entities or their obligations; within this context, non-payment on an instrument that contains a deferral feature or grace period will generally not be considered a default until after the expiration of the deferral or grace period, unless a default is otherwise driven by bankruptcy or other similar circumstance, or by a distressed debt exchange. |
• | In all cases, the assignment of default rating reflects the agency’s opinion as to the most appropriate rating category consistent with the rest of its universe of ratings and may differ from the definition of default under the terms of an issuer’s financial obligations or local commercial practice. |
Notes to Long-Term ratings:
Within rating categories, Fitch may use modifiers. The modifiers “+” or “-” may be appended to a rating to denote relative status within major rating categories. Such suffixes are not added to the ‘AAA’ Long-Term IDR category, or to Long-Term IDR categories below ‘B’.
Short-Term Credit Ratings Assigned to Issuers and Obligations
A short-term issuer or obligation rating is based in all cases on the short-term vulnerability to default of the rated entity and relates to the capacity to meet financial obligations in accordance with the documentation governing the relevant obligation. Short-term deposit ratings may be adjusted for less severity. Short-Term Ratings are assigned to obligations whose initial maturity is viewed as “short term” based on market convention (a long term rating can also be used to rate an issue with short maturity). Typically, this means up to 13 months for corporate, sovereign, and structured obligations, and up to 36 months for obligations in U.S. public finance markets.
F1: Highest short-term credit quality. Indicates the strongest intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial commitments; may have an added “+” to denote any exceptionally strong credit feature.
F2: Good short-term credit quality. Good intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial commitments.
F3: Fair short-term credit quality. The intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial commitments is adequate.
B: Speculative short-term credit quality. Minimal capacity for timely payment of financial commitments, plus heightened vulnerability to near term adverse changes in financial and economic conditions.
C: High short-term default risk. Default is a real possibility.
RD: Restricted default. Indicates an entity that has defaulted on one or more of its financial commitments, although it continues to meet other financial obligations. Typically applicable to entity ratings only.
D: Default. Indicates a broad-based default event for an entity, or the default of a short-term obligation.
DESCRIPTION OF INSURANCE FINANCIAL STRENGTH RATINGS
Moody’s Investors Service, Inc. Insurance Financial Strength Ratings
Moody’s Insurance Financial Strength Ratings are opinions of the ability of insurance companies to repay punctually senior policyholder claims and obligations and also reflect the expected financial loss suffered in the event of default.
S&P Insurer Financial Strength Ratings
An S&P insurer financial strength rating is a forward-looking opinion about the financial security characteristics of an insurance organization with respect to its ability to pay under its insurance policies and contracts in accordance with their terms. Insurer financial strength ratings are also assigned to health maintenance organizations and similar health plans with respect to their ability to pay under their policies and contracts in accordance with their terms.
This opinion is not specific to any particular policy or contract, nor does it address the suitability of a particular policy or contract for a specific purpose or purchaser. Furthermore, the opinion does not take into account deductibles, surrender or cancellation penalties, timeliness of payment, nor the likelihood of the use of a defense such as fraud to deny claims.
Insurer financial strength ratings do not refer to an organization’s ability to meet nonpolicy (i.e., debt) obligations. Assignment of ratings to debt issued by insurers or to debt issues that are fully or partially supported by insurance policies, contracts, or guarantees is a separate process from the determination of insurer financial strength ratings, and it follows procedures consistent with those used to assign an issue credit rating. An insurer financial strength rating is not a recommendation to purchase or discontinue any policy or contract issued by an insurer.
Long-Term Insurer Financial Strength Ratings
Category Definition
AAA
An insurer rated ‘AAA’ has extremely strong financial security characteristics. ‘AAA’ is the highest insurer financial strength rating assigned by S&P.
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AA
An insurer rated ‘AA’ has very strong financial security characteristics, differing only slightly from those rated higher.
A
An insurer rated ‘A’ has strong financial security characteristics, but is somewhat more likely to be affected by adverse business conditions than are insurers with higher ratings.
BBB
An insurer rated ‘BBB’ has good financial security characteristics, but is more likely to be affected by adverse business conditions than are higher-rated insurers.
BB, B, CCC and CC
An insurer rated ‘BB’ or lower is regarded as having vulnerable characteristics that may outweigh its strengths. ‘BB’ indicates the least degree of vulnerability within the range and ‘CC’ the highest.
BB
An insurer rated ‘BB’ has marginal financial security characteristics. Positive attributes exist, but adverse business conditions could lead to insufficient ability to meet financial commitments.
B
An insurer rated ‘B’ has weak financial security characteristics. Adverse business conditions will likely impair its ability to meet financial commitments.
CCC
An insurer rated ‘CCC’ has very weak financial security characteristics, and is dependent on favorable business conditions to meet financial commitments.
CC
An insurer rated ‘CC’ has extremely weak financial security characteristics and is likely not to meet some of its financial commitments.
SD or D
An insurer rated ‘SD’ (selective default) or ‘D’ is in default on one or more of its insurance policy obligations. The ‘D’ rating also will be used upon the filing of a bankruptcy petition or the taking of similar action if payments on a policy obligation are at risk. A ‘D’ rating is assigned when S&P believes that the default will be a general default and that the obligor will fail to pay substantially all of its obligations in full in accordance with the policy terms. An ‘SD’ rating is assigned when S&P believes that the insurer has selectively defaulted on a specific class of policies but it will continue to meet its payment obligations on other classes of obligations. A selective default includes the completion of a distressed exchange offer. Claim denials due to lack of coverage or other legally permitted defenses are not considered defaults.
NR: Indicates that a rating has not been assigned or is no longer assigned.
Plus (+) or Minus (-): The ratings from ‘AA’ to’ CCC’ may be modified by the addition of a plus (+) or minus (-) sign to show relative standing within the major rating categories.
Fitch Insurer Financial Strength Rating
The Insurer Financial Strength (IFS) Rating provides an assessment of the financial strength of an insurance organization. The IFS Rating is assigned to the insurance company’s policyholder obligations, including assumed reinsurance obligations and contract holder obligations, such as guaranteed investment contracts. The IFS Rating reflects both the ability of the insurer to meet these obligations on a timely basis, and expected recoveries received by claimants in the event the insurer stops making payments or payments are interrupted, due to either the failure of the insurer or some form of regulatory intervention. In the context of the IFS Rating, the timeliness of payments is considered relative to both contract and/or policy terms but also recognizes the possibility of reasonable delays caused by circumstances common to the insurance industry, including claims reviews, fraud investigations and coverage disputes.
The IFS Rating does not encompass policyholder obligations residing in separate accounts, unit-linked products or segregated funds, for which the policyholder bears investment or other risks. However, any guarantees provided to the policyholder with respect to such obligations are included in the IFS Rating.
Expected recoveries are based on the agency’s assessments of the sufficiency of an insurance company’s assets to fund policyholder obligations, in a scenario in which payments have ceased or been interrupted. Accordingly, expected recoveries exclude the impact of
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recoveries obtained from any government sponsored guaranty or policyholder protection funds. Expected recoveries also exclude the impact of collateralization or security, such as letters of credit or trusteed assets, supporting select reinsurance obligations.
IFS Ratings can be assigned to insurance and reinsurance companies in any insurance sector, including the life & annuity, non-life, property/casualty, health, mortgage, financial guaranty, residual value and title insurance sectors, as well as to managed care companies such as health maintenance organizations.
The IFS Rating uses the same symbols used by the agency for its International and National credit ratings of long-term or short-term debt issues. However, the definitions associated with the ratings reflect the unique aspects of the IFS Rating within an insurance industry context.
Obligations for which a payment interruption has occurred due to either the insolvency or failure of the insurer or some form of regulatory intervention will generally be rated between ‘B’ and ‘C’ on the Long-Term IFS Rating scales (both International and National). International Short-Term IFS Ratings assigned under the same circumstances will align with the insurer’s International Long-Term IFS Ratings.
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APPENDIX B
Eaton Vance Funds
Proxy Voting Policy and Procedures
I. | Overview |
The Boards of Trustees (the “Board”) of the Eaton Vance Funds1 have determined that it is in the interests of the Funds’ shareholders to adopt these written proxy voting policy and procedures (the “Policy”). For purposes of this Policy:
• | “Fund” means each registered investment company sponsored by the Eaton Vance organization; and |
• | “Adviser” means the investment adviser or sub-adviser responsible for the day-to-day management of all or a portion of the Fund’s assets. |
II. | Delegation of Proxy Voting Responsibilities |
The Board hereby delegates to the Adviser responsibility for voting the Fund’s proxies as described in this Policy. In this connection, the Adviser is required to provide the Board with a copy of its proxy voting policies and procedures (“Adviser Procedures”) and all Fund proxies will be voted in accordance with the Adviser Procedures, provided that in the event a material conflict of interest arises with respect to a proxy to be voted for the Fund (as described in Section IV below) the Adviser shall follow the process for voting such proxy as described in Section IV below.
The Adviser is required to report any material change to the Adviser Procedures to the Board in the manner set forth in Section V below. In addition, the Board will review the Adviser Procedures annually.
III. | Delegation of Proxy Voting Disclosure Responsibilities |
Pursuant to Rule 30b1-4 promulgated under the Investment Company Act of 1940, as amended (the “1940 Act”), the Fund is required to file Form N-PX no later than August 31st of each year. On Form N-PX, the Fund is required to disclose, among other things, information concerning proxies relating to the Fund’s portfolio investments, whether or not the Fund (or its Adviser) voted the proxies relating to securities held by the Fund and how it voted on the matter and whether it voted for or against management.
To facilitate the filing of Form N-PX for the Fund:
• | The Adviser is required to record, compile and transmit in a timely manner all data required to be filed on Form N-PX for the Fund that it manages. Such data shall be transmitted to Eaton Vance Management, which acts as administrator to the Fund (the “Administrator”) or the third party service provider designated by the Administrator; and |
• | the Administrator is required to file Form N-PX on behalf of the Fund with the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”) as required by the 1940 Act. The Administrator may delegate the filing to a third party service provider provided each such filing is reviewed and approved by the Administrator. |
IV. | Conflicts of Interest |
The Board expects the Adviser, as a fiduciary to the Fund it manages, to put the interests of the Fund and its shareholders above those of the Adviser. When required to vote a proxy for the Fund, the Adviser may have material business relationships with the issuer soliciting the proxy that could give rise to a potential material conflict of interest for the Adviser.2 In the event such a material conflict of interest arises, the Adviser, to the extent it is aware or reasonably should have been aware of the material conflict, will refrain from voting any proxies related to companies giving rise to such material conflict until it notifies and consults with the appropriate Board, or any committee, sub-committee or group of Independent Trustees identified by the Board (as long as such committee, sub-committee or group contains at least two or more Independent Trustees) (the “Board Members”), concerning the material conflict.3, 4 For ease of communicating with the Board Members, the Adviser is required to provide the foregoing notice to the Fund’s Chief Legal Officer who will then notify and facilitate a consultation with the Board Members.
Once the Board Members have been notified of the material conflict:
• | They shall convene a meeting to review and consider all relevant materials related to the proxies involved. This meeting shall be convened within 3 business days, provided that it an effort will be made to convene the meeting sooner if the proxy must be voted in less than 3 business days; |
• | In considering such proxies, the Adviser shall make available all materials requested by the Board Members and make reasonably available appropriate personnel to discuss the matter upon request; and |
• | The Board Members will then instruct the Adviser on the appropriate course of action with respect to the proxy at issue. |
If the Board Members are unable to meet and the failure to vote a proxy would have a material adverse impact on the Fund(s) involved, the Adviser will have the right to vote such proxy, provided that it discloses the existence of the material conflict to the Chairperson of the Board as soon as practicable and to the Board at its next meeting. Any determination regarding the voting of proxies of the Fund that is made by the Board Members shall be deemed to be a good faith determination regarding the voting of proxies by the full Board.
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V. | Reports and Review |
The Administrator shall make copies of Form N-PX filed on behalf of the Fund available for the Board’s review upon the Board’s request. The Administrator (with input from the Adviser for the Fund) shall also provide any reports reasonably requested by the Board regarding the proxy voting records of the Fund.
The Adviser shall report any material changes to the Adviser Procedures to the Board as soon as practicable and the Boards will review the Adviser Procedures annually.
The Adviser also shall report any material changes to the Adviser Procedures to the Fund’s Chief Legal Officer prior to implementing such changes in order to enable the Administrator to effectively coordinate the Fund’s disclosure relating to the Adviser Procedures.
To the extent requested by the Commission, the Policy and the Adviser Procedures shall be appended to the Fund’s statement of additional information included in its registration statement.
1 | The Eaton Vance Funds may be organized as trusts or corporations. For ease of reference, the Funds may be referred to herein as Trusts and the Funds’ Board of Trustees or Board of Directors may be referred to collectively herein as the Board. |
2 | An Adviser is expected to maintain a process for identifying a potential material conflict of interest. As an example only, such potential conflicts may arise when the issuer is a client of the Adviser and generates a significant amount of fees to the Adviser or the issuer is a distributor of the Adviser’s products. |
3 | If a material conflict of interest exists with respect to a particular proxy and the proxy voting procedures of the relevant Adviser require that proxies are to be voted in accordance with the recommendation of a third party proxy voting vendor, the requirements of this Section IV shall only apply if the Adviser intends to vote such proxy in a manner inconsistent with such third party recommendation. |
4 | Effective October 1, 2021, and to the extent that Morgan Stanley Investment Management Company is acting as sub-adviser to Eaton Vance Greater China Growth Fund, the requirements of this Section IV shall be waived, as approved by the Board of Trustees on October 12, 2021. |
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EATON VANCE MANAGEMENT
BOSTON MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH
EATON VANCE MANAGEMENT (INTERNATIONAL) LIMITED
EATON VANCE ADVISERS INTERNATIONAL LTD.
PROXY VOTING POLICIES AND PROCEDURES
I. | Introduction |
Eaton Vance Management, Boston Management and Research, Eaton Vance Management (International) Limited and Eaton Vance Advisers International Ltd. (each an “Adviser” and collectively the “Advisers”) have each adopted and implemented policies and procedures that each Adviser believes are reasonably designed to ensure that proxies are voted in the best interest of clients, in accordance with its fiduciary duties and, to the extent applicable, Rule 206(4)-6 under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, as amended. The Advisers’ authority to vote the proxies of their clients is established by their advisory contracts or similar documentation. These proxy policies and procedures are intended to reflect current requirements applicable to investment advisers registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission (“SEC”). These procedures may change from time to time.
II. | Overview |
Each Adviser manages its clients’ assets with the overriding goal of seeking to provide the greatest possible return to such clients consistent with governing laws and the investment policies of each client. In pursuing that goal, each Adviser seeks to exercise its clients’ rights as shareholders of voting securities to support sound corporate governance of the companies issuing those securities with the principle aim of maintaining or enhancing the companies’ economic value.
The exercise of shareholder rights is generally done by casting votes by proxy at shareholder meetings on matters submitted to shareholders for approval (for example, the election of directors or the approval of a company’s stock option plans for directors, officers or employees). Each Adviser has established guidelines (“Guidelines”) as described below and generally will utilize such Guidelines in voting proxies on behalf of its clients. The Guidelines are largely based on those developed by third-party proxy voting service, Institutional Shareholder Services, Inc. (ISS) but also reflect input from the Global Proxy Group (defined below) and other Adviser investment professionals and are believed to be consistent with the views of the Adviser on the various types of proxy proposals. These Guidelines are designed to promote accountability of a company’s management and board of directors to its shareholders and to align the interests of management with those of shareholders. The Guidelines provide a framework for analysis and decision making but do not address all potential issues.
Except as noted below, each Adviser will vote any proxies received by a client for which it has sole investment discretion in accordance with the Guidelines in a manner that is reasonably designed to eliminate any potential conflicts of interest, as described more fully below.(1) Where applicable, proxies will be voted in accordance with client-specific guidelines or, in the case of an Eaton Vance Fund that is sub-advised, pursuant to the sub-adviser’s proxy voting policies and procedures. Although an Adviser retains the services of ISS for research, the Adviser remains responsible for proxy voting decisions.
III. | Roles and Responsibilities |
A. Proxy Administrator
The Proxy Administrator and/or designee coordinate the consideration of proxies referred back to the Adviser, and otherwise administers these Procedures. In the Proxy Administrator’s absence, another employee of the Adviser may perform the Proxy Administrator’s responsibilities as deemed appropriate by the Global Proxy Group. The Proxy Administrator also may designate another employee to perform certain of the Proxy Administrator’s duties hereunder, subject to the oversight of the Proxy Administrator.
B. ISS
The Advisers are responsible for the voting of proxies. The Advisers have engaged ISS for research and vote recommendation services. ISS is responsible for coordinating with the clients’ custodians and the Advisers to ensure that all proxy materials received by the custodians relating to the portfolio securities are processed in a timely fashion. Each Adviser shall instruct the custodian for its clients to deliver proxy ballots and related materials to ISS. ISS retains a record of all proxy votes handled by ISS. With respect to each Eaton Vance Fund memorialized therein, such record must reflect all of the information required to be disclosed in the Fund’s Form N-PX pursuant to Rule 30b1-4 under the Investment Company Act of 1940, to the extent applicable. In addition, ISS is responsible for maintaining copies of all proxy statements received by issuers and to promptly provide such materials to an Adviser upon request.
Subject to the oversight of the Advisers, ISS shall establish and maintain adequate internal controls and policies in connection with the provision of proxy voting services to the Advisers, including methods to reasonably ensure that its analysis and recommendations are not influenced by a conflict of interest, and shall disclose such controls and policies to the Advisers when and as provided for herein. Unless otherwise specified, references herein to recommendations of ISS shall refer to those in which no conflict of interest has been identified. The Advisers are responsible for the ongoing oversight of ISS as contemplated by SEC
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Staff Legal Bulletin No. 20 (June 30, 2014) and interpretive guidance issued by the SEC in August 2019 regarding proxy voting responsibilities of investment advisers (Release Nos. IA-5325 and IC-33605). Such oversight currently may include one or more of the following and may change from time to time:
• | periodic review of ISS’s proxy voting platform and reporting capabilities (including recordkeeping); |
• | periodic meetings with ISS’s client services team; |
• | periodic in-person and/or web-based due diligence meetings; |
• | receipt and review of annual certifications received from ISS; |
• | annual review of due diligence materials provided by ISS, including review of procedures and practices regarding potential conflicts of interests; |
• | periodic review of relevant changes to ISS’s business; and/or |
• | periodic review of the following to the extent not included in due diligence materials provided by ISS: (i) ISS’s staffing, personnel and/or technology; (ii) ISS’s process for seeking timely input from issuers (e.g., with respect to proxy voting policies, methodologies and peer group construction); (iii) ISS’s process for use of third-party information; (iv) ISS’s policies and procedures for obtaining current and accurate information relevant to matters in its research and on which it makes voting recommendations, and (v) ISS’s business continuity program (“BCP”) and any service/operational issues experienced due to the enacting of ISS’s BCP. |
C. Global Proxy Group
The Adviser shall establish a Global Proxy Group which is responsible for establishing the Guidelines (described below) and reviewing such Guidelines at least annually. The Global Proxy Group shall also review recommendations to vote proxies in a manner that is contrary to the Guidelines and when the proxy relates to a conflicted company of the Adviser as described below.
The members of the Global Proxy Group shall include members of the Equity Departments of Eaton Vance Management (“EVM”) and Eaton Vance Advisers International Ltd. (“EVAIL”) and EVM’s Global Income Department. The Proxy Administrator is not a voting member of the Global Proxy Group. Members of the Global Proxy Group may be changed from time to time at the Advisers’ discretion. Matters that require the approval of the Global Proxy Group may be acted upon by its member(s) available to consider the matter.
IV. | Proxy Voting |
A. The Guidelines
The Global Proxy Group shall establish recommendations for the manner in which proxy proposals shall be voted (the “Guidelines”). The Guidelines shall identify when ballots for specific types of proxy proposals shall be voted(2) or referred to the Adviser. The Guidelines shall address a wide variety of individual topics, including, among other matters, shareholder voting rights, anti-takeover defenses, board structures, the election of directors, executive and director compensation, reorganizations, mergers, issues of corporate social responsibility and other proposals affecting shareholder rights. In determining the Guidelines, the Global Proxy Group considers the recommendations of ISS as well as input from the Advisers’ portfolio managers and analysts and/or other internally developed or third party research.
The Global Proxy Group shall review the Guidelines at least annually and, in connection with proxies to be voted on behalf of the Eaton Vance Funds, the Adviser will submit amendments to the Guidelines to the Fund Boards each year for approval.
With respect to the types of proxy proposals listed below, the Guidelines will generally provide as follows:
1. Proposals Regarding Mergers and Corporate Restructurings/Disposition of Assets/Termination/Liquidation and Mergers
All proxy proposals relating to Mergers and Corporate Restructurings shall be directed to the Proxy Administrator and/or designee for review with relevant investment personnel.
2. Corporate Structure Matters/Anti-Takeover Defenses
As a general matter, the Advisers will normally vote against anti-takeover measures and other proposals designed to limit the ability of shareholders to act on possible transactions (except in the case of closed-end management investment companies).
3. Proposals Regarding Proxy Contests
All proxy proposals relating to Proxy Contests shall be directed to the Proxy Administrator and/or designee for review with relevant investment personnel.
4. Social and Environmental Issues
The Advisers will vote social and environmental proposals on a “case-by-case” basis taking into consideration industry best practices and existing management policies and practices.
Interpretation and application of the Guidelines is not intended to supersede any law, regulation, binding agreement or other legal requirement to which an issuer or the Adviser may be or become subject. The Guidelines generally relate to the types of proposals that are most frequently presented in proxy statements to shareholders. In certain circumstances, an Adviser may determine to vote contrary to the Guidelines subject to the voting procedures set forth below.
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B. Voting Procedures
Except as noted in Section V below, the Proxy Administrator and/or designee shall vote proxies as follows:
1. Vote in Accordance with Guidelines
If the Guidelines prescribe the manner in which the proxy is to be voted, the Adviser shall vote in accordance with the Guidelines, which for certain types of proposals, will be determined on a case-by-case basis.
2. Seek Guidance for a Referred Item or a Proposal for which there is No Guideline
If (i) the Guidelines state that the proxy shall be referred to the Adviser to determine the manner in which it should be voted or (ii) a proxy is received for a proposal for which there is no Guideline, the Proxy Administrator and/or designee shall consult with the analyst(s) covering the company subject to the proxy proposal and shall instruct ISS to vote in accordance with the determination of the analyst. The Proxy Administrator and/or designee will maintain a record of all proxy proposals that are referred, as well as all applicable recommendations, analysis and research received and the resolution of the matter. Where more than one analyst covers a particular company and the recommendations of such analysts for voting a proposal subject to this Section IV.B.2 conflict, the Global Proxy Group shall review such recommendations and any other available information related to the proposal and determine the manner in which it should be voted, which may result in different recommendations for clients (including Funds).
3. Votes Contrary to the Guidelines or Where ISS is Conflicted
In the event an analyst with respect to companies within his or her coverage area may recommend a vote contrary to the Guidelines, the Proxy Administrator and/or designee will provide the Global Proxy Group with ISS’s recommendation for the proposal along with any other relevant materials, including a description of the basis for the analyst’s recommendation via email and the Proxy Administrator and/or designee will then vote the proxy in the manner determined by the Global Proxy Group. The Adviser will provide a report to the Boards of Trustees of the Eaton Vance Funds reflecting any votes cast on behalf of the Eaton Vance Funds contrary to the Guidelines, and shall do so quarterly.
4. Do Not Cast a Vote
It shall generally be the policy of the Advisers to take no action on a proxy for which no client holds a position or otherwise maintains an economic interest in the relevant security at the time the vote is to be cast. In addition, the Advisers may determine not to vote (i) if the economic effect on shareholders’ interests or the value of the portfolio holding is indeterminable or insignificant (e.g., proxies in connection with securities no longer held in the portfolio of a client or proxies being considered on behalf of a client that is no longer in existence); (ii) if the cost of voting a proxy outweighs the benefits (e.g., certain international proxies, particularly in cases in which share blocking practices may impose trading restrictions on the relevant portfolio security); or (iii) in markets in which shareholders’ rights are limited, and (iv) the Adviser is unable to access or access timely ballots or other proxy information.
C. Securities on Loan
When a fund client participates in the lending of its securities and the securities are on loan at the record date for a shareholder meeting, proxies related to such securities generally will not be forwarded to the relevant Adviser by the fund’s custodian and therefore will not be voted. In the event that the Adviser determines that the matters involved would have a material effect on the applicable fund’s investment in the loaned securities, the Adviser will make reasonable efforts to terminate the loan in time to be able to cast such vote or exercise such consent. The Adviser shall instruct the fund’s security lending agent to refrain from lending the full position of any security held by a fund to ensure that the Adviser receives notice of proxy proposals impacting the loaned security.
V. | Recordkeeping |
The Advisers will maintain records relating to the proxies they vote on behalf of their clients in accordance with Section 204-2 of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, as amended. Those records will include:
• | A copy of the Advisers’ proxy voting policies and procedures; |
• | Proxy statements received regarding client securities. Such proxy statements received from issuers are either in the SEC’s EDGAR database or are kept by ISS and are available upon request; |
• | A record of each vote cast; |
• | A copy of any document created by the Advisers that was material to making a decision on how to vote a proxy for a client or that memorializes the basis for such a decision; and |
• | Each written client request for proxy voting records and the Advisers’ written response to any client request (whether written or oral) for such records. |
All records described above will be maintained in an easily accessible place for five years and will be maintained in the offices of the Advisers for two years after they are created.
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In addition, EVAIL shall maintain records relating to the proxies it votes on behalf of its clients in accordance with UK law.
VI. | Assessment of ISS and Identification and Resolution of Conflicts with Clients |
A. Assessment of ISS
The Advisers shall establish that ISS (i) is independent from the Advisers, (ii) has resources that indicate it can competently provide analysis of proxy issues, and (iii) can make recommendations in an impartial manner and in the best interests of the clients and, where applicable, their beneficial owners. The Advisers shall utilize, and ISS shall comply with, such methods for establishing the foregoing as the Advisers may deem reasonably appropriate and shall do so not less than annually as well as prior to engaging the services of any new proxy voting service. ISS shall also notify the Advisers in writing within fifteen (15) calendar days of any material change to information previously provided to an Adviser in connection with establishing ISS’s independence, competence or impartiality.
B. Conflicts of Interest
As fiduciaries to their clients, each Adviser puts the interests of its clients ahead of its own. In order to ensure that relevant personnel of the Advisers are able to identify potential material conflicts of interest, each Adviser will take the following steps:
• | Quarterly, the Eaton Vance Legal and Compliance Department will seek information from the department heads of each department of the Advisers and of Eaton Vance Distributors, Inc. (“EVD”) (an affiliate of the Advisers and principal underwriter of certain Eaton Vance Funds). Each department head will be asked to provide a list of significant clients or prospective clients of the Advisers or EVD. |
• | A representative of the Legal and Compliance Department will compile a list of the companies identified (the “Conflicted Companies”) and provide that list to the Proxy Administrator. |
• | The Proxy Administrator will compare the list of Conflicted Companies with the names of companies for which he or she has been referred a proxy statement (the “Proxy Companies”). If a Conflicted Company is also a Proxy Company, the Proxy Administrator will report that fact to the Global Proxy Group. |
• | If the Proxy Administrator expects to vote the proxy of the Conflicted Company strictly according to the Guidelines contained in these Proxy Voting Policies and Procedures (the “Policies”) or the recommendation of ISS, as applicable, he or she will (i) inform the Global Proxy Group of that fact, (ii) vote the proxies and (iii) record the existence of the material conflict and the resolution of the matter. |
• | If the Proxy Administrator intends to vote in a manner inconsistent with the Guidelines, the Global Proxy Group will then determine if a material conflict of interest exists between the relevant Adviser and its clients (in consultation with the Legal and Compliance Department if needed). If the Global Proxy Group determines that a material conflict exists, prior to voting any proxies relating to these Conflicted Companies the Adviser will seek instruction on how the proxy should be voted from: |
• | The client, in the case of an individual, corporate, institutional or benefit plan client; |
• | In the case of a Fund, its board of directors, any committee, sub-committee or group of Independent Trustees (as long as such committee, sub-committee or group contains at least two or more Independent Trustees); or |
• | The adviser, in situations where the Adviser acts as a sub-adviser to such adviser. |
• | If a client holds securities issued by Morgan Stanley, of which the Adviser is an indirect wholly owned subsidiary, the Proxy Administrator will instruct ISS to “echo vote” such securities in the same proportion as other proxy voters that are not clients of the Adviser. |
The Adviser will provide all reasonable assistance to each party to enable such party to make an informed decision.
If the client, Fund board or adviser, as the case may be, fails to instruct the Adviser on how to vote the proxy, the Adviser will generally abstain from voting in order to avoid the appearance of impropriety. If however, the failure of the Adviser to vote its clients’ proxies would have a material adverse economic impact on the Advisers’ clients’ securities holdings in the Conflicted Company, the Adviser may vote such proxies in order to protect its clients’ interests. In either case, the Proxy Administrator will record the existence of the material conflict and the resolution of the matter.
The Advisers shall also identify and address conflicts that may arise from time to time concerning ISS. Upon the Advisers’ request, which shall be not less than annually, and within fifteen (15) calendar days of any material change to such information previously provided to an Adviser, ISS shall provide the Advisers with such information as the Advisers deem reasonable and appropriate for use in determining material relationships of ISS that may pose a conflict of interest with respect to ISS’s proxy analysis or recommendations. Such information shall include, but is not limited to, a monthly report from ISS detailing ISS’s Corporate Securities Division clients and related revenue data. The Advisers shall review such information on a monthly basis.
(1) | From time to time, an Adviser may vote the shares it owns in a Fund that is managed or advised by the Adviser or an affiliate of the Adviser. The Adviser will mirror vote its shares (i.e. vote the shares it holds in the same proportion as the vote of all other holders) or vote in accordance with the voting recommendations of ISS or another third-party proxy voting service that is unaffiliated with the Adviser. |
(2) | The Guidelines will prescribe how a proposal shall be voted or provide factors to be considered on a case-by-case basis in recommending a vote pursuant to the Guidelines. |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 52 | SAI dated January 17, 2025 |
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund
Statement of Additional Information
January 17, 2025
Investment Adviser and Administrator
Eaton Vance Management
One Post Office Square
Boston, MA 02109
Custodian
State Street Bank and Trust Company
One Congress Street, Suite 1
Boston, MA 02114-2016
Transfer Agent
Equiniti Trust Company, LLC
P.O. Box 500
Newark, NJ 07101
Independent Registered Public Accounting Firm
Deloitte & Touche LLP
115 Federal Street, Suite 15
Boston, MA 02110-1894
Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund | 53 | SAI dated January 17, 2025 |
PART C
OTHER INFORMATION
ITEM 25. | FINANCIAL STATEMENTS AND EXHIBITS |
(1) | FINANCIAL STATEMENTS: |
Included in Part A:
Financial Highlights for the ten years ended September 30, 2024.
Included in Part B:
Registrant’s Certified Shareholder Report on Form N-CSR filed November 26, 2024 (Accession No. 0001193125-24-266029) and incorporated herein by reference.
(2) | EXHIBITS: |
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ITEM 26. | MARKETING ARRANGEMENTS |
See Form of Distribution Agreement with respect to the Rule 415 shelf offering filed herewith.
See Form of Sub-Placement Agent Agreement between Eaton Vance Distributors, Inc. and [ ] filed herewith.
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ITEM 27. | OTHER EXPENSES OF ISSUANCE AND DISTRIBUTION |
The approximate expenses in connection with the offering are as follows:
Registration and Filing Fees |
$ | 13,800 | ||
FINRA Fees |
$ | 18,000 | ||
New York Stock Exchange Fees |
$ | 21,407 | ||
Costs of Printing and Engraving |
$ | 0 | ||
Accounting Fees and Expenses |
$ | 2,500 | ||
Legal Fees and Expenses |
$ | 90,000 | ||
|
|
|||
Total |
$ | 145,707 |
* | The Adviser will pay expenses of the offering (other than the applicable commissions). |
ITEM 28. | PERSONS CONTROLLED BY OR UNDER COMMON CONTROL |
None.
ITEM 29. | NUMBER OF HOLDERS OF SECURITIES |
Set forth below is the number of record holders as of November 30, 2024, of each class of securities of the Registrant:
Title of Class | Number of Record Holders | |||
Common Shares of Beneficial interest, par value $0.01 per share |
32,352 |
ITEM 30. | INDEMNIFICATION |
The Registrant’s Amended and Restated By-Laws and the Form of Distribution Agreement contain provisions limiting the liability, and providing for indemnification, of the Trustees and officers under certain circumstances.
The Registrant’s Trustees and officers are insured under a standard investment company errors and omissions insurance policy covering loss incurred by reason of negligent errors and omissions committed in their official capacities as such. Insofar as indemnification for liabilities arising under the Securities Act of 1933, as amended (the “Securities Act”), may be permitted to directors, officers and controlling persons of the Registrant pursuant to the provisions described in this Item 29, or otherwise, the Registrant has been advised that in the opinion of the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”) such indemnification is against public policy as expressed in the Securities Act and is therefore unenforceable. In the event that a claim for indemnification against such liabilities (other than the payment by the Registrant of expenses incurred or paid by a director, officer or controlling person of the Registrant in the successful defense of any action, suit or proceeding) is asserted by such director, officer or controlling person in connection with the securities being registered, the Registrant will, unless in the opinion of its counsel the matter has been settled by controlling precedent, submit to a court of appropriate jurisdiction the question whether such indemnification by it is against public policy as expressed in the Securities Act and will be governed by the final adjudication of such issue.
ITEM 31. | BUSINESS AND OTHER CONNECTIONS OF INVESTMENT ADVISER |
Reference is made to: (i) the information set forth under the caption “Investment Advisory and Other Services” in the Statement of Additional Information; (ii) the Morgan Stanley 10-K filed under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended (the “1934 Act”) (File No. 001-11758); the most recent Eaton Vance Corp. Form 10-K filed under the 1934 Act (File No. 001-8100); and (iii) the Form ADV of Eaton Vance Management (File No. 801-15930) filed with the Commission under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, as amended, all of which are incorporated herein by reference.
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ITEM 32. | LOCATION OF ACCOUNTS AND RECORDS |
All applicable accounts, books and documents required to be maintained by the Registrant by Section 31(a) of the Investment Company Act and the Rules promulgated thereunder are in the possession and custody of the Registrant’s custodian, State Street Bank and Trust Company, One Congress Street, Suite 1, Boston, MA 02114-2016, and its transfer agent, Equiniti Trust Company, LLC, 6201 15th Avenue, Brooklyn, NY 11219, with the exception of certain corporate documents and portfolio trading documents which are in the possession and custody of Eaton Vance Management, One Post Office Square, Boston, MA 02109. Registrant is informed that all applicable accounts, books and documents required to be maintained by registered investment advisers are in the custody and possession of Eaton Vance Management.
ITEM 33. | MANAGEMENT SERVICES |
Not applicable.
ITEM 34. | UNDERTAKINGS |
1. Not applicable.
2. Not applicable.
3. The Registrant undertakes to
(a) file, during any period in which offers or sales are being made, a post-effective amendment to the registration statement:
(1) to include any prospectus required by Section 10(a)(3) of the Securities Act;
(2) to reflect in the prospectus any facts or events after the effective date of the registration statement (or the most recent post-effective amendment thereof) which, individually or in the aggregate, represent a fundamental change in the information set forth in the registration statement. Notwithstanding the foregoing, any increase or decrease in volume of securities offered (if the total dollar value of securities offered would not exceed that which was registered) and any deviation from the low or high end of the estimated maximum offering range may be reflected in the form of prospectus filed with the Commission pursuant to Rule 424(b) if, in the aggregate, the changes in volume and price represent no more than 20% change in the maximum aggregate offering price set forth in the “Calculation of Registration Fee” table in the effective registration statement;
(3) to include any material information with respect to the plan of distribution not previously disclosed in the registration statement or any material change to such information in the registration statement.
(b) that, for the purpose of determining any liability under the Securities Act, each such post-effective amendment shall be deemed to be a new registration statement relating to the securities offered therein, and the offering of those securities at that time shall be deemed to be the initial bona fide offering thereof;
(c) to remove from registration by means of a post-effective amendment any of the securities being registered which remain unsold at the termination of the offering;
(d) that, for the purpose of determining liability under the Securities Act to any purchaser:
(1) if the Registrant is relying on Rule 430B (17 CFR 230.430B):
(A) Each prospectus filed by the Registrant pursuant to Rule 424(b)(3) shall be deemed to be part of the registration statement as of the date the filed prospectus was deemed part of and included in the registration statement; and
(B) Each prospectus required to be filed pursuant to Rule 424(b)(2), (b)(5), or (b)(7) as part of a registration statement in reliance on Rule 430B relating to an offering made pursuant to Rule 415(a)(1)(i), (x), or (xi) for the purpose of providing the information required by Section 10(a) of the Securities Act shall be deemed to be part of and included in the registration statement as of the earlier of the date such form of prospectus is first used after effectiveness or the date of the first contract of sale of securities in the offering described in the prospectus. As provided in Rule 430B, for
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liability purposes of the issuer and any person that is at that date an underwriter, such date shall be deemed to be a new effective date of the registration statement relating to the securities in the registration statement to which that prospectus relates, and the offering of such securities at that time shall be deemed to be the initial bona fide offering thereof. Provided, however, that no statement made in a registration statement or prospectus that is part of the registration statement or made in a document incorporated or deemed incorporated by reference into the registration statement or prospectus that is part of the registration statement will, as to a purchaser with a time of contract of sale prior to such effective date, supersede or modify any statement that was made in the registration statement or prospectus that was part of the registration statement or made in any such document immediately prior to such effective date; or
(2) if the Registrant is subject to Rule 430C (17 CFR 230.430C): each prospectus filed pursuant to Rule 424(b) under the Securities Act as part of a registration statement relating to an offering, other than registration statements relying on Rule 430B or other than prospectuses filed in reliance on Rule 430A, shall be deemed to be part of and included in the registration statement as of the date it is first used after effectiveness. Provided, however, that no statement made in a registration statement or prospectus that is part of the registration statement or made in a document incorporated or deemed incorporated by reference into the registration statement or prospectus that is part of the registration statement will, as to a purchaser with a time of contract of sale prior to such first use, supersede or modify any statement that was made in the registration statement or prospectus that was part of the registration statement or made in any such document immediately prior to such date of first use.
(e) that for the purpose of determining liability of the Registrant under the Securities Act to any purchaser in the initial distribution of securities: The undersigned Registrant undertakes that in a primary offering of securities of the undersigned Registrant pursuant to this registration statement, regardless of the underwriting method used to sell the securities to the purchaser, if the securities are offered or sold to such purchaser by means of any of the following communications, the undersigned Registrant will be a seller to the purchaser and will be considered to offer or sell such securities to the purchaser:
(1) any preliminary prospectus or prospectus of the undersigned Registrant relating to the offering required to be filed pursuant to Rule 424 under the Securities Act;
(2) free writing prospectus relating to the offering prepared by or on behalf of the undersigned Registrant or used or referred to by the undersigned Registrants;
(3) the portion of any other free writing prospectus or advertisement pursuant to Rule 482 under the Securities Act relating to the offering containing material information about the undersigned Registrant or its securities provided by or on behalf of the undersigned Registrant; and
(4) any other communication that is an offer in the offering made by the undersigned Registrant to the purchaser.
4. The Registrant undertakes that:
(a) for the purpose of determining any liability under the Securities Act, the information omitted from the form of prospectus filed as part of this Registration Statement in reliance upon Rule 430A and contained in the form of prospectus filed by the Registrant under the Securities Act shall be deemed to be part of the Registration Statement as of the time it was declared effective; and
(b) for the purpose of determining any liability under the Securities Act, each post- effective amendment that contains a form of prospectus shall be deemed to be a new registration statement relating to the securities offered therein, and the offering of such securities at that time shall be deemed to be the initial bona fide offering thereof.
5. The undersigned Registrant hereby undertakes that, for purposes of determining any liability under the Securities Act of 1933, each filing of the Registrant’s annual report pursuant to Section 13(a) or Section 15(d) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 that is incorporated by reference into the registration statement shall be deemed to be a new registration statement relating to the securities offered therein, and the offering of such securities at that time shall be deemed to be the initial bona fide offering thereof.
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6. Insofar as indemnification for liabilities arising under the Securities Act of 1933 may be permitted to trustees, officers and controlling persons of the Registrant pursuant to the foregoing provisions, or otherwise, the Registrant has been advised that in the opinion of the Securities and Exchange Commission such indemnification is against public policy as expressed in the Act and is, therefore, unenforceable. In the event that a claim for indemnification against such liabilities (other than the payment by the Registrant of expenses incurred or paid by a trustee, officer or controlling person of the Registrant in the successful defense of any action, suit or proceeding) is asserted by such director, officer or controlling person in connection with the securities being registered, the Registrant will, unless in the opinion of its counsel the matter has been settled by controlling precedent, submit to a court of appropriate jurisdiction the question whether such indemnification by it is against public policy as expressed in the Act and will be governed by the final adjudication of such issue.
7. The Registrant undertakes to send by first class mail or other means designed to ensure equally prompt delivery, within two business days of receipt of an oral or written request, its prospectus or Statement of Additional Information.
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NOTICE
A copy of the Agreement and Declaration of Trust of Eaton Vance Enhanced Equity Income Fund is on file with the Secretary of State of The Commonwealth of Massachusetts and notice is hereby given that this instrument is executed on behalf of the Registrant by an officer of the Registrant as an officer and not individually and that the obligations of or arising out of this instrument are not binding upon any of the Trustees, officers or shareholders individually, but are binding only upon the assets and property of the Registrant.
SIGNATURES
Pursuant to the requirements of the Securities Act of 1933, as amended, and the Investment Company Act of 1940, as amended, the Registrant has duly caused this Amendment to the Registration Statement to be signed on its behalf by the undersigned, thereunto duly authorized in the City of Boston and the Commonwealth of Massachusetts, on the 17th day of January, 2025.
EATON VANCE ENHANCED EQUITY INCOME FUND | ||
By: | R. Kelly Williams, Jr.* | |
R. Kelly Williams, Jr., President |
Pursuant to the requirements of the Securities Act of 1933, as amended, this Registration Statement has been signed by the following persons in the capacities and on the dates indicated.
Signature | Title | |||||
R. Kelly Williams, Jr.* | President (Chief Executive Officer) | |||||
R. Kelly Williams, Jr. | ||||||
James F. Kirchner* | Treasurer (Principal Financial and Accounting Officer) | |||||
James F. Kirchner |
Signature | Title | Signature | Title | |||
Alan C. Bowser* | Trustee | Keith Quinton* | Trustee | |||
Alan C. Bowser | Keith Quinton | |||||
Mark R. Fetting* | Trustee | Marcus L. Smith* | Trustee | |||
Mark R. Fetting | Marcus L. Smith | |||||
Cynthia E. Frost* | Trustee | Nancy Wiser Stefani* | Trustee | |||
Cynthia E. Frost | Nancy Wiser Stefani | |||||
George J. Gorman* | Trustee | Susan J. Sutherland* | Trustee | |||
George J. Gorman | Susan J. Sutherland | |||||
Valerie A. Mosley* | Trustee | Scott E. Wennerholm* | Trustee | |||
Valerie A. Mosley | Scott E. Wennerholm |
*By: | /s/ Deidre E. Walsh | |||||
Deidre E. Walsh (As attorney-in-fact) |
INDEX TO EXHIBITS
Exhibit No. |
Description | |||
(h) | (4) | Form of Distribution Agreement with respect to the Rule 415 shelf offering | ||
(5) | Form of Sub-Placement Agent Agreement | |||
(l) | Opinion of Internal Counsel dated January 17, 2025 | |||
(n) | Consent of Independent Registered Public Accounting Firm dated January 16, 2025 | |||
(s) | Calculation of Filing Fee Tables | |||
(t) | (1) | Secretary’s Certificate dated December 11, 2024 | ||
(2) | Power of Attorney dated August 6, 2024 |